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Indian Polity MCQs – 15 (Emergency Provisions)

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Indian Polity MCQs and Mock Tests

Indian Polity MCQs – 15 (Emergency Provisions)

Emergency Provisions MCQs with answers and explanations for preparation of UPSC, BPSC, UPPSC and other State PSC Examinations

Free Mock Tests

Build Your Basics

1. Emergency provisions are contained in which among the following parts of the constitution ?

(a) Part XVIII

(b) Part XVII

(c) Part XVI

(d) Part XV

Correct Answer: (a) Part XVIII

  • The Emergency provisions are contained in Part XVIII of the Constitution, from Articles 352 to 360.
  • These provisions have been added to the constitution to enable the Central government to meet any abnormal emergency situation and protect the sovereignty, unity, integrity and security of the nation.

2. How many types of emergencies have been envisaged under the Indian Constitution?

(a) Two

(b) Three

(c) Four

(d) One

Correct Answer: (b) Three

  • There are three types of emergencies which have been envisaged under the Indian constitution. 
  • The President can declare the following three types of emergencies: 
    • National emergency (under Article 352) 
    • State emergency (under Article 356) 
    • Financial emergency (under Article 360)

3. National emergency under article 352 is proclaimed in case of ?

(a) Armed rebellion

(b) External aggression

(c) War

(d)  All the above

Correct Answer: (d)  All the above

  • National emergency under article 352 is proclaimed in case of:
    • War
    • External aggression
    • Armed rebellion
  • When a national emergency is declared on the ground of ‘War’ or ‘External aggression’, it is known as ‘External Emergency’. 
  • When a national emergency is declared on the ground of ‘Armed rebellion’, it is known as ‘Internal Emergency’.

4. The first proclamation of emergency under article 352 was made by the President in which among the following year ?

(a) 1975

(b) 1971

(c) 1965

(d) 1962

Correct Answer: (d) 1962

  • First emergency under article 352 (National emergency) was proclaimed in India in 1962 during the Indo-China War. 
  • Similar declarations under article 352 were made by the President in 1971 during the Indo-Pak War and in 1975 on the suggestion of then prime minister Indira Gandhi.

5. Emergency under article 356 is imposed by which one of the following ?

(a) Prime minister

(b) Governor

(c) Vice-president’

(d) President

Correct Answer: (d) President

  • Emergency under article 356 is popularly known as ‘President’s Rule’.
  • It is imposed by the president in any state due to the failure of the constitutional machinery in that state.

6. Financial emergency is imposed under article?

(a) Article 354

(b).Article 365

(c) Article 367

(d) Article 360

Correct Answer: (d) Article 360

  • Financial emergency under Article 360 is proclaimed in case of threat to the financial stability or credit of India.
  • Financial emergency has never been imposed.

7. Consider the following statement :

  1. No Proclamation of Emergency can be made by the President of India unless the       Union Ministers of Cabinet rank, headed by the Prime Minister, recommended to him, in writing, that such a Proclamation should be issued.
  2. The President of India must issue a Proclamation of Revocation of Emergency any time that the Lok Sabha passes a resolution disapproving the proclamation or its continuance.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

  • According to Article 352, the President shall not issue a Proclamation unless the decision of the Union Cabinet (the Council consisting of the Prime Minister and other Ministers of Cabinet rank appointed under article 75) that such a Proclamation be issued has been communicated to him in writing. 
  • Every Proclamation issued under this article shall be laid before each House of Parliament.
  • The Proclamation shall cease to operate at the expiration of one month unless before the expiration of that period it has been approved by resolutions of both Houses of Parliament with special majority(two-thirds of the members of that
  • house present and voting).
  • If approved by both the houses of Parliament, the emergency continues for six months, and can be extended to an indefinite period with an approval of the Parliament for every six months.

8. The President of India can issue a proclamation of national emergency under article 352:

(a) On the advice of the Prime Minister

(b) On the advice of the Council of Ministers

(c) In his own discretion

(d) When the decision of the Union Cabinet to issue such proclamation has been communicated to him in writing

Correct Answer: (d) When the decision of the Union Cabinet to issue such proclamation has been communicated to him in writing

  • According to Article 352, the President shall not issue a Proclamation unless the decision of the Union Cabinet (the Council consisting of the Prime Minister and other Ministers of Cabinet rank appointed under article 75) that such a Proclamation be issued has been communicated to him in writing. 
  • In 1975, the then Prime Minister, Indira Gandhi advised the president to proclaim emergency without consulting her cabinet. 
  • Hence, 44th Amendment Act of 1978 introduced this safeguard to eliminate any future possibility of the prime minister alone taking a decision to impose emergency on his whims without consulting the cabinet.

9. Which among the following amendment acts made significant changes to the emergency provisions of the constitution ?

(a) 44th Amendment Act

(b) 1st Amendment Act

(c) 24th Amendment Act

(d) 42nd Amendment Act

Correct Answer: (a) 44th Amendment Act

  • 44th Amendment Act made the following changes in the emergency provisions of the constitution :
    • Enabled the president to limit the operation of a National emergency to a specific part of India.
    • Substituted the words ‘Armed rebellion’ for ‘Internal disturbance’.
    • Added the requirement of cabinet approval in writing for the proclamation of emergency
    • Deleted the provision which made the declaration of a National Emergency immune from judicial review(Which was added by 38th Amendment Act of 1975).
    • Reduce the time required to approve the emergency by Parliament from Two months to one month
    • Added a provision for a periodical parliamentary approval every six months for the continuation of emergency.
    • Changed the majority required to approve the proclamation of emergency from Simple Majority to Special Majority.
    • Added a provision that the President must revoke the emergency if the Lok Sabha passes a resolution disapproving its continuation.

10. Initially, for how long President rule can be imposed in a state ?

(a) 6 months

(b) 9 months

(c) 12 months

(d) 15 months

Correct Answer: (a) 6 months

  • The President’s Rule under article 356 can be proclaimed on two grounds :
    • If the president is satisfied on receipt of a report from the governor or otherwise that a situation has arisen in which the Government in a state cannot be carried in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution.
    • Whenever a state fails to comply with or to give effect to any direction from the Centre.
  • A proclamation imposing President’s Rule must be approved by both the Houses of Parliament within two months from the date of its issue.
  • If approved by both the Houses of Parliament, the President’s Rule continues for six months. 
  • The President’s Rule can be extended for a maximum period of three years with the approval of the Parliament, every six months.

Also Read in Indian Polity MCQs :

Indian Polity MCQs – 14 (Parliament)

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Indian Polity MCQs and Mock Tests

Indian Polity MCQs – 14 (Parliament)

Parliament MCQs with answers and explanations for preparation of UPSC, BPSC, UPPSC and other State PSC Examinations

Free Mock Tests

Build Your Basics

1. Which of the following articles of the Indian Constitution deals with the Parliament of India ?

(a) Article 73

(b) Article 78

(c) Article 79

(d) Article 72

Correct Answer: (c) Article 79

  • Articles 79 to 122 in Part V of the Constitution deal with the organization, composition, duration, procedures, powers etc. of the Parliament of India.

2. Which of the following are not part of Parliament ?

(a) Council of States or Rajya Sabha

(b) House of the People or Lok Sabha

(c) President

(d) Attorney General of India

Correct Answer: (d) Attorney General of India

  • As per the Constitution, the Parliament of India consists of following three parts: 
    • The President
    • Council of States or Rajya Sabha
    • House of the People or Lok Sabha
  • The President is an important part of the Parliament as a bill passed by both the Houses of Parliament cannot become law without the assent of the President.
  • The Attorney General of India is the highest law officer of India and a chief legal advisor to the government of India. He is not part of the Parliament.

3. The maximum strength of the Rajya Sabha is fixed at: 

(a) 250

(b) 251

(c) 255

(d) 260

Correct Answer: (a) 250

  • The maximum strength of the Rajya Sabha is fixed at 250, out of which, 238 are to be the representatives of the various states and union territories (elected indirectly) and 12 are nominated by the President.
  • The Fourth Schedule of the Constitution deals with the allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha to the states and union territories.
  • At present, the Rajya Sabha has 245 members.

4. Which of the following articles deals with the composition of the council of states ( Rajya sabha) and the manner of election of its members?

(a) Article 82

(b) Article 81

(c) Article 90

(d) Article 80

Correct Answer: (d) Article 80

  • Article 80 of the Constitution lays down the maximum strength of the Rajya Sabha at 250, out of which, 238 are to be the representatives of the various states and union territories (elected indirectly) and 12 are nominated by the President.
  • The Fourth Schedule of the Constitution deals with the allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha to the states and union territories.
  • At present, the Rajya Sabha has 245 members.

5. The representatives of the state in the Rajya sabha are elected by which one of the following?

(a) Chief minister of the state

(b) Elected members of the state legislative assemblies

(c) Governor

(d) President

Correct Answer: (b) Elected members of the state legislative assemblies

  • The representatives of states in the Rajya Sabha are elected by the elected members of state legislative assemblies.
  • The election is held in accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote.
  • The seats allotted to the states are not equal in the Rajya Sabha as they are alloted the basis of population.
  • In the USA, all states are given equal representation in the Senate irrespective of their population.

6. How many members are nominated by the President to the Rajya sabha?

(a) 20

(b) 18

(c) 12

(d) 15

Correct Answer: (c) 12

  • The President nominates 12 members to the Rajya Sabha from people who have distinguished knowledge or experience in art, literature, science and social service.

7. As per the constitution, The maximum strength of the Lok Sabha is ?

(a) 550

(b) 552

(c) 555

(d) 560

Correct Answer: (b) 552

  • The maximum strength of the Lok Sabha is fixed at 552. Out of this, 530 members are to be the representatives of the states, 20 members are to be the representatives of the union territories and 2 members are to be nominated by the president from the Anglo-Indian community.
  • At present, the Lok Sabha has 545 members.

8. Which among the following articles defines the Money Bill ?

(a) Article 110

(b) Article 111

(c) Article 112

(d) Article 113

Correct Answer: (a) Article 110

  • Only those financial bills which contain provisions exclusively on matters listed in article 110 of the constitution are called Money Bills.

9. First session of Lok Sabha was held in which among the following years ?

(a) 1950

(b) 1951

(c) 1952

(d) 1953

Correct Answer: (c) 1952

  • The first Lok Sabha was constituted on 17 April 1952 after India’s first general elections.
  • Its first session commenced on 13 May 1952.

10. Consider the following statements about the Constitution of India: 

  1. A Member of Parliament enjoys freedom of speech in the Parliament.
  2. The Constitution has vested the power to amend the Constitution in the Parliament.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

  • A Member of Parliament enjoys freedom of speech in the Parliament as a Parliamentary privilege.
  • The Constitution has vested in Parliament the power to amend the Constitution.

11. A person cannot be a member of both the Parliament and the state legislature at the same time. If a person is so elected, his seat in Parliament becomes vacant if he does not resign his seat in the state legislature within :

(a) 14 days

(b) 18 days

(c) 12 days

(d) 15 days

Correct Answer: (a) 14 days

  • A person cannot be a member of both the Parliament and the state legislature at the same time. If a person is so elected, his seat in Parliament becomes vacant if he does not resign his seat in the state legislature within 14 days.
  • If a person is elected to both the Houses of Parliament, he must intimate within 10 days in which House he desires to serve otherwise his seat in the Rajya Sabha becomes vacant.
  • If a sitting member of one House is also elected to the other house, his seat in the first House becomes vacant.

12. Who among the following presides over a joint setting of the two Houses of Parliament.

(a) Chairman of Rajya Sabha

(b) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha

(c) Prime Minister

(d) President

Correct Answer: (b) The speaker of the Lok Sabha

Powers/Responsibilities of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha:

  • He maintains order and decorum in the House.
  • He adjourns the House in absence of a quorum. 
  • He does not vote in the first instance however he can exercise a casting vote in the case there is a tie.
  • He presides over a joint sitting of the two Houses of Parliament. A joint sitting is summoned by the President. In case the Speaker is absent,  joint sitting is presided over by the deputy speaker.
  • He decides whether a bill is a money bill or not and his decision on this question is final.
  • He decides on the questions of disqualification of a member of the Lok Sabha, arising on the ground of defection under the provisions of the Tenth Schedule.
  • He appoints the chairman of all the parliamentary committees of the Lok Sabha and supervises their functioning.

13. The speaker of the Lok Sabha adjourns the House in absence of a quorum. Quorum is ?

(a) One-tenth of the total strength of the House

(b) One-fifth of the total strength of the House

(c) One-third of the total strength of the House

(d) Two-third of the total strength of the House

Correct Answer: (a) One-tenth of the total strength of the House

  • The quorum to constitute a meeting of the House is one-tenth of the total strength of the House.
  • The speaker of the Lok Sabha adjourns the House in absence of a quorum.

14. The speaker of the Lok Sabha gives his resignation to ?

(a) Chairman of Rajya Sabha

(b) Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha

(c) Prime Minister

(d) President

Correct Answer: (b) Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha

  • The Speaker is elected by the Lok Sabha from amongst its members.
  • The date of election of the Speaker is fixed by the President.
  • He can resign by writing to the Deputy Speaker.
  • Removal of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha 
    • He can be removed by a resolution passed by a majority of all then members of the Lok Sabha. 
    • Such a resolution can be moved only after giving an advance notice of 14 days. 
    • Such resolution of removal can be considered only when it has the support of at least 50 members of the house.
    • When a resolution for the removal of the Speaker is under process, the Speaker  can speak and take part in the proceedings of the House and also vote in the first instance, however, not in the case of an equality of votes(Which is generally the case while passing other bills).

15. Who among the following is the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha ?

(a) Vice-President

(b) Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha

(c) Senior most member of the house

(d) President

Correct Answer: (a) Vice-President

  • The presiding officer of the Council of states(Rajya Sabha) is known as the Chairman. 
  • The vice-president of India is the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
  • As a presiding officer, the powers and functions of the Chairman in the Rajya Sabha are similar to the Speaker of Lok Sabha.

Also Read in Indian Polity MCQs :

Indian Polity MCQs – 13 (Prime Minister and council of ministers)

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Indian Polity MCQs and Mock Tests

Indian Polity MCQs – 13 (Prime Minister and council of ministers)

Prime Minister and council of ministers MCQs with answers and explanations for preparation of UPSC, BPSC, UPPSC and other State PSC Examinations

Free Mock Tests

Build Your Basics

1. Which one of the following articles deals with the appointment of the Prime Minister and other ministers?

(a) Article 76

(b) Article 74

(c) Article 75

(d) Article 72

Correct Answer: (c) Article 75

  • Article 75 says that the Prime Minister shall be appointed by the president.
  • In accordance with the conventions of the parliamentary system of government, the President appoints the leader of the majority party in the Lok Sabha as the Prime Minister.

2. The Prime Minister is appointed by which one of the following ?

(a) Attorney general of India

(b) President

(c) Vice-president

(d) Chief justice of India

Correct Answer: (b) President

  • Article 75 says that the Prime Minister shall be appointed by the president.
  • In accordance with the conventions of the parliamentary system of government, the President appoints the leader of the majority party in the Lok Sabha as the Prime Minister.

3. In India, the Prime Minister remains in office so long as he enjoys the

(a) Confidence of armed forces

(b) Confidence of Rajya Sabha

(c) Confidence of Lok Sabha

(d) Support of the people

Correct Answer: (c) Confidence of Lok Sabha

  • The term of the Prime Minister is not fixed and he holds office during the pleasure of the president. 
  • As long as the Prime Minister enjoys the majority support in the Lok Sabha, he cannot be removed by the President. However, if he loses the confidence of the Lok Sabha, he must resign or the President can dismiss him.

4. The President can appoint only those persons as ministers who are recommended by : 

(a) Home minister

(b) Prime minister

(c) Attorney general

(d) Speaker of Lok Sabha

Correct Answer: (b) Prime minister

  • The Prime minister recommends persons who can be appointed as ministers by the president. 
  • The President can appoint only those persons as ministers who are recommended by the Prime Minister.
  • The Prime minister can also ask a minister to resign or advise the President to dismiss him in case of difference of opinion.

5. Who among the following shall communicate to the president all the decisions of the council of ministers under article 78 ?

(a) Home minister

(b) Prime minister

(c) Attorney general

(d) Vice-President

Correct Answer: (b) Prime minister

  • Prime minister is the principal channel of communication between the President and the council of ministers.
  • It is the responsibility of the prime minister to communicate to the President all decisions of the council of ministers relating to the administration of the affairs of the Union and proposals for legislation.

6. The president appoints Comptroller and Auditor General of India on the advice of : 

(a) Home minister

(b) Prime minister

(c) Attorney general

(d) Vice-President

Correct Answer: (b) Prime minister

  • Prime minister advises the president with regard to the appointment of important officials of the union like:
    • Attorney general of India
    • Comptroller and Auditor General of India
    • Chairman and members of the UPSC
    • Election commissioners, 
    • Chairman and members of the finance commission and so on.

7. The total number of ministers including the prime ministers should not exceed : 

(a) 20% members of the Lok sabha

(b) 10% members of the Lok sabha

(c) 25% members of the Lok sabha

(d) 15% members of the Lok sabha

Correct Answer: (d) 15% members of the Lok Sabha

  • The total number of ministers, including the Prime Minister should not exceed 15% of the total strength of the Lok Sabha.
  • This provision was added by the 91st Amendment Act of 2003.

8. The council of ministers are collectively responsible to which among the following ?

(a) Attorney general of India

(b) President

(c) Lok Sabha

(d) Rajya Sabha

Correct Answer: (c) Lok Sabha

  • As per Article 75 of the constitution, The council of ministers are collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha.
  • They work as a team and swim or sink together.
  • When a no-confidence motion is successfully passed in the Lok Sabha the whole council of ministers including those ministers who are from the Rajya Sabha need to resign.

9. A person can remain a minister without being a member of the Parliament (either house) for a maximum period of ?

(a) 6 months

(b) 3 months

(c) 12 months

(d) 1 month

Correct Answer: (a) 6 months

  • A minister who is not a member of the Parliament (either house) for any period of six consecutive months shall cease to be a minister.
  • A person who is not a member of either House of Parliament can also be appointed as a minister. But, within six months, he must become a member (either by election or by nomination) of either House of Parliament, otherwise, he ceases to be a minister.
  • A minister who is a member of one House of Parliament can speak and take part in the proceedings of the other House also, but he can vote only in the house of which he is a member.

10. In the union council of ministers, which among the following is not a category of ministers ?

(a) Cabinet Ministers

(b) Ministers of State

(c) Deputy Ministers

(d) Independent Minister

Correct Answer: (d) Independent Minister

  • The union council of ministers consists of the following three categories of ministers:
    1. Cabinet ministers – Head important ministries of the Central government
    2. Ministers of state – Either be given independent charge of ministries/ departments or can be attached to cabinet ministers.
    3. Deputy Ministers – Attached to the cabinet ministers or ministers of state and assist them in their work.
  • The Prime Minister heads all the ministers.

Also Read in Indian Polity MCQs :

Indian Polity MCQs – 12 (Vice-President)

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Indian Polity MCQs and Mock Tests

Indian Polity MCQs – 12 (Vice-President)

Vice-President MCQs with answers and explanations for preparation of UPSC, BPSC, UPPSC and other State PSC Examinations

Free Mock Tests

Build Your Basics

1. Which of the following articles deals with the election of the Vice-president ?

(a) Article 64

(b) Article 68

(c) Article 66

(d) Article 62

Correct Answer:(c) Article 66

  • The Vice-President occupies the second highest office in the country.
  • Article 66 deals with the election of the Vice-president of India.
  • The Vice-President, like the president, is elected not directly by the people but by the method of indirect election.
  • He is elected by the members of an electoral college consisting of the members of both Houses of Parliament

2. Who among the following takes part in  the election of the Vice-president of India?

  1. Elected members of Lok Sabha
  2. Nominated members of Rajya Sabha
  3. Elected members of State legislative assemblies

(a) 1 Only

(b) 1 and 2 Only

(c) All of the above

(d) None of the above

Correct Answer: (b)1 and 2 Only

  • Both elected and nominated members of the Parliament(Lok Sabha + Rajya Sabha) take part in the election of the Vice-president (in the case of the president, only elected members).
  • Members of the state legislative assemblies do not take part in the election of the Vice-president (in the case of President, the elected members of the state legislative assemblies are included).

3. To be eligible for election as Vice-President, a person should fulfill which among the following qualifications ?

  1. He should be a citizen of India.
  2. He should have completed 35 years of age.
  3. He should be qualified to be elected as a member of the Rajya Sabha.

(a) 1 Only

(b) 1 and 2 Only

(c) All of the above

(d) None of the above

Correct Answer: (c) All of the above

  • To be eligible for election as Vice-President, a person:
    • Should be a citizen of India.
    • Should have completed 35 years of age.
    • Should be qualified for election as a member of the Rajya Sabha.
    • Should not hold any office of profit under the Union government or any state government

4. Who can remove the Vice-President from his office?

(a) President

(b) Prime minister

(c) Parliament

(d) Legislative assemblies of the state

Correct Answer: (c) Parliament

  • The Indian Parliament has the power to remove the Vice President of India.
  • Vice-President can be removed by a resolution passed by a majority of all the then members of the Rajya Sabha and then agreed to by the Lok Sabha.
  • The resolution should be passed in the Rajya Sabha by an effective majority and in the Lok Sabha by a simple majority. 
  • This resolution can be introduced only in the Rajya Sabha and not in the Lok Sabha.

5. The term of office of the Vice-president is as follows?

(a) 6 years

(b) 4 years

(c) 7 years

(d) 5 years

Correct Answer: (d) 5 years

  • The Vice-president is elected for a period of 5 years.
  • However, he can resign from his office at any time by addressing the resignation letter to the President.

6. The Vice-President is the Ex-Officio Chairman of the ?

(a) Rajya Sabha

(b) Lok Sabha

(c) Planning Commission

(d) National Development Council

Correct Answer: (a) Rajya Sabha

  • The Vice-President is ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
  • He acts as President when a vacancy occurs in the office of the President due his resignation, impeachment, death or otherwise.
  • He can act as President only for a maximum period of six months within which a new President has to be elected.

7. What is the minimum age prescribed by the Constitution of India for a candidate to be elected as Vice-President of India?

(a) 18 years

(b) 25 years

(c) 30 years

(d) 35 years

Correct Answer: (d) 35 years

  • Minimum age for a candidate to be elected as Vice President of India- 35 years
  • Minimum age for a candidate to be elected as MLA- 25 years
  • Minimum age for a candidate to be elected as member of Lok Sabha-25 years
  • Minimum age for a candidate to be elected as member of Rajya Sabha-30 years
  • Minimum age for a candidate to be elected as MLC- 30 years

8. Who is competent to dissolve the Rajya Sabha?

(a) The Chairman of Rajya Sabha

(b) The President

(c) The joint session of Parliament

(d) None of these

Correct Answer: (d) None of these

  • Rajya Sabha is a permanent house hence can not be dissolved. Every second year, one-third of its members retire. For the vacant seats, fresh elections take place. 
  • Rajya Sabha is the second chamber of the parliament and represents the states and union territories of the nation. 
  • It is empowered to protect the interests of the states and union territories in the matters discussed in the Parliament.

9. The oath of office to the Vice-President is administered by ?

(a) Chief Justice of India

(b) Prime Minister

(c) President

(d) None of the above

Correct Answer: (c) President

  • Before entering upon his office, the Vice-President takes oath:
    • To bear true faith and allegiance to the Constitution of India
    • To faithfully discharge the duties of his office
  • The oath of office to the Vice-President is administered by the President or some person appointed on that behalf by him.

10. Who was the first Vice-President of India?

(a) Dr. Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan

(b) G.S. Pathak

(c) B.D. Jatti

(d) Krishna Kant

Correct Answer: (a) Dr. Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan

  • Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan was the first Vice President of India (1952–1962).
  • He was also the second President of India from 1962 to 1967. 
  • His birthday is celebrated as Teachers day in India.

Also Read in Indian Polity MCQs :

Indian Polity MCQs – 11 (President)

by
Indian Polity MCQs and Mock Tests

Indian Polity MCQs – 11 (President)

President MCQs with answers and explanations for preparation of UPSC, BPSC, UPPSC and other State PSC Examinations

Free Mock Tests

Build Your Basics

1. The Constitution of India vests the executive powers of the Indian Union in which of the following ?

(a) The prime minister

(b) The president

(c) The council of ministers

(d) The parliament

Correct Answer: (b) The president

  • The President is the head of the Indian State and executive powers of the Indian Union have been vested to the President.
  • President has to exercise the executive powers in consultation with the council of ministers headed by the prime minister.

2. Which one of the following articles deals with the pardoning power of the President?

(a) Article 71

(b) Article 74

(c) Article 72

(d) Article 75

Correct Answer: (c) Article 72

Judicial Powers of President:

  • Appointment of Chief Justice and Supreme Court/High Court Judges.
  • President takes advice from the Supreme Court, however, the advice is not binding.
  • Under article 72, the President has been conferred with power to grant pardon against punishment for an offense against:
    • Union law
    • Punishment by a martial court
    • Death sentence.
  • Pardoning powers of the president includes the following types:
    • Pardon – Removes both the sentence and the conviction and completely absolves the convict from all sentences.
    • Commutation – Substitution of one form of punishment for a lighter form.
    • Remission – Reduces the term of the imprisonment.
    • Respite – Lesser punishment than original punishment by looking at the special condition of a convict(example physical disability, pregnancy etc.)
    • Reprieve – stays the execution of the awarded sentence for a temporary period.
  • The pardoning power is to be exercised by the President on the advice of the union cabinet.
  • The President is not bound to give reasons for his order.
  • The exercise of power by the President is not subject to judicial review except where the presidential decision is arbitrary, irrational or discriminatory.

3. The impeachment of the President is carried by which one of the following?

(a) Attorney general

(b) Members of the legislative

(c) Parliament

(d) Prime minister

Correct Answer: (c) Parliament

  • The President can be removed from office by a process of impeachment for ‘violation of the Constitution’.
  • The impeachment charges can be initiated by either House of Parliament. 
  • These charges should be signed by one-fourth members of the House (that initiated the charges).
  • 14 days’ notice should be given to the President.
  • If the Impeachment resolution is passed by a majority of two-thirds of the total membership of the house in both the houses , then the President stands removed from his office.

4. The vacancy of the office of the President of India must be filled up within ?

(a) 90 days

(b) 6 months

(c) One year

(d) within the period decided by the Parliament

Correct Answer: (b) 6 months

  • An election to fill a vacancy in the office of President occurring because of his death, resignation or removal, or otherwise shall be held as soon as possible and in no case later than six months from, the date of occurrence of the vacancy
  • The person elected to fill the vacancy shall be entitled to hold office for the full term of five years from the date on which he enters upon his office.

5. Consider the following statement :

  1. On the expiry of the term of five years by the President of India, the outgoing President must continue to hold office until his successor enters upon his office.
  2. The Electoral College for the President’s election consists of the elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of Delhi and Puducherry also.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

  •  On the expiry of the term of five years by the President of India, the outgoing President must continue to hold office until his successor enters upon his office.
  • The electoral college responsible for President’s elections comprises elected members of:
    • Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
    • Legislative Assemblies of the states (Members of Legislative Councils are not eligible)
    • Legislative Assemblies of the Union Territories of Delhi and Puducherry

6. Who has the right to seek an advisory opinion of the Supreme Court of India, on any question of law ?

(a) Prime Minister

(b) President

(c) Any of the high courts

(d) All of the above

Correct Answer: (b) President

  • The President can take advice from the Supreme Court on any question of law, however, the advice given by the Supreme Court is not binding on him.

7. If the position of President and Vice-President are vacant, who officiates as the President of India ?

(a) The Prime Minister

(b) The Chief Justice of India

(c) The Speaker of Lok Sabha

(d) None of these

Correct Answer: (b) The Chief Justice of India

  • If the Vice-President office is vacant, Chief Justice of India (CJI) or in his absence, Supreme Court’s senior-most judge, discharges the functions of the President till a new President is elected.

8. The President of India has emergency powers of ?

(a) Two types

(b) Three types

(c) Four types

(d) Five types

Correct Answer: (b) Three types

  • The President of India can declare the following three types of emergencies:
    • National Emergency (Mentioned under Article 352)
    • President’s Rule (Mentioned under Article 356 & 365)
    • Financial Emergency (Mentioned under Article 360)

9. How many times can the President of India be re-elected to his post?

(a) Once

(b) 2 times

(c) 3 times

(d) Any numbers of time

Correct Answer: (d) Any numbers of time

  • The President serves a term of five years from the date they take office. 
  • The President  can resign anytime by sending a resignation letter to the Vice-President. 
  • The President can be removed from office through the process of impeachment before the completion of their term. 
  • The President can remain in office until their successor takes over.
  • The President is eligible for re-election for any number of terms. However, in the United States, a person cannot be elected as President more than twice.

10. Who held the office of the Vice-President of India for two consecutive terms?

(a) Dr. Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan

(b) Mr. R. Venkataraman

(c) Dr. Shankar Dayal Sharma

(d) Mr. V.V. Giri

Correct Answer: (a) Dr. Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan

  • Dr. Radhakrishnan held the office of the Vice-President of India for two consecutive terms  from 1952 to 1962. 
  • Dr. Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan was an Indian philosopher and statesman who was the first Vice President of India and the second President of India from 1962 to 1967.

Also Read in Indian Polity MCQs :

Indian Polity MCQs – 10 (Fundamental Duties)

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Indian Polity MCQs and Mock Tests

Indian Polity MCQs – 10 (Fundamental Duties)

Fundamental Duties MCQs with answers and explanations for preparation of UPSC, BPSC, UPPSC and other State PSC Examinations

Chapterwise MCQs

Short Notes

1. Which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution contains Fundamental Duties?

(a) 45 A

(b) 51 A

(c) 42

(d) 30B

Correct Answer: (b) 51 A

  • The Fundamental Duties of citizens are mentioned in Article 51 A of the Indian Constitution.

2. The Fundamental Duties are mentioned in:

(a) Part-IV(A)

(b) Part-IV

(c) Part-III

(d) Part-VI(A)

Correct Answer: (a) Part-IV(A)

  • The Fundamental Duties of citizens are mentioned in Part-IV A of the Indian Constitution.

3. Which of the following are Fundamental Duties?

(a) Safeguarding public property

(b) Protecting the sovereignty, integrity and unity of India

(c) Developing scientific temper and humanism

(d) All the above

Correct Answer: (d) All the above

  •  Fundamental Duties as mentioned in the constitution states that It shall be the duty of every citizen of India:
    • To abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals and institutions, the National Flag and the National Anthem
    • To cherish and follow the noble ideals which inspired our national struggle for freedom
    • To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India
    • To defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so
    • To promote harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood amongst all the people of India transcending religious, linguistic and regional or sectional diversities, to renounce practices derogatory to the dignity of women
    • To value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture
    • To protect and improve the natural environment including forests, lakes, rivers and wildlife, and to have compassion for living creatures
    • To develop the scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of inquiry and reform
    • To safeguard public property and to abjure violence
    • To strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity so that the nation constantly rises to higher levels of endeavor and achievement
    • Who is a parent or guardian to provide opportunities for education to his child or, as the case may be, ward between the age of six and fourteen years.

4. Which of the following committees suggested the incorporation of Fundamental Duties in the Indian Constitution?

(a) Malhotra Committee

(b) Raghavan Committee

(c) Swaran Singh Committee

(d) Narasimhan Committee

Correct Answer: (c) Swaran Singh Committee

  • Fundamental Duties were incorporated in the Indian Constitution by the Constitution (Forty-Second Amendment) Act, 1976 upon the recommendations of the Swaran Singh Committee.

5. The Fundamental Duties were included in the Constitution of India by which of the following Amendment Act?

(a) 40th Amendment Act

(b) 44th Amendment Act

(c) 43rd Amendment Act

(d) 42nd Amendment Act

Correct Answer: (d) 42nd Amendment Act

  • Fundamental Duties were incorporated in the Indian Constitution by the Constitution (Forty-Second Amendment) Act, 1976.

6. Which of the following are Fundamental Duties of an Indian citizen according to Article 51-A of the Constitution?

  1. To believe in socialism, secularism and democracy
  2. To abide by the Constitution and respect the National Flag and the National Anthem
  3. To protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India
  4. To preserve the rich heritage of the country’s composite culture
  5. To help the poor and weaker sections of the society

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 2, 3 and 4

(c) 3, 4 and 5

(d) 1, 4 and 5

Correct Answer: (b) 2, 3 and 4

    •  To believe in socialism, secularism and democracy is not a Fundamental Duty.
    • To help the poor and weaker sections of the society is not a Fundamental Duty.
  • Fundamental duties:
    • To abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals and institutions, the National Flag and the National Anthem
    • To cherish and follow the noble ideals which inspired our national struggle for freedom
    • To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India
    • To defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so
    • To promote harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood amongst all the people of India transcending religious, linguistic and regional or sectional diversities, to renounce practices derogatory to the dignity of women
    • To value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture
    • To protect and improve the natural environment including forests, lakes, rivers and wildlife, and to have compassion for living creatures
    • To develop the scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of inquiry and reform
    • To safeguard public property and to abjure violence
    • To strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity so that the nation constantly rises to higher levels of endeavor and achievement
    • Who is a parent or guardian to provide opportunities for education to his child or, as the case may be, ward between the age of six and fourteen years.

7. Which of the following statements regarding the Fundamental Duties contained in the Indian Constitution are correct?

  1. Fundamental duties can be enforced through writ jurisdiction.
  2. Fundamental duties are part of the Indian Constitution since its adoption.
  3. Fundamental duties became a part of the Constitution in accordance with the recommendations of the sardar Swaran Singh Committee.
  4. Fundamental duties are applicable only to citizens of India.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 1, 2 and 4

(c) 2 and 3

(d) 3 and 4

Correct Answer: (d) 3 and 4

  • Fundamental duties are non justiciable in nature and hence can not be enforced through writ jurisdiction.
  • Fundamental Duties were incorporated in the Indian Constitution by the Constitution (Forty-Second Amendment) Act, 1976. 
  • Fundamental duties became a part of the Constitution in accordance with the recommendations of the sardar Swaran Singh Committee.
  • Fundamental duties are applicable only to citizens of India and not to the aliens.

8. Which of the following duties have been prescribed by the Indian Constitution as Fundamental Duties ?

  1. To defend the country
  2. To pay income tax
  3. To preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture
  4. To safeguard public property

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 and 4

(c) 1, 2 and 4

(d) 1, 3 and 4

Correct Answer: (d) 1, 3 and 4

  • Fundamental duties:
    • To abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals and institutions, the National Flag and the National Anthem
    • To cherish and follow the noble ideals which inspired our national struggle for freedom
    • To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India
    • To defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so
    • To promote harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood amongst all the people of India transcending religious, linguistic and regional or sectional diversities, to renounce practices derogatory to the dignity of women
    • To value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture
    • To protect and improve the natural environment including forests, lakes, rivers and wildlife, and to have compassion for living creatures
    • To develop the scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of inquiry and reform
    • To safeguard public property and to abjure violence
    • To strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity so that the nation constantly rises to higher levels of endeavor and achievement
    • Who is a parent or guardian to provide opportunities for education to his child or, as the case may be, ward between the age of six and fourteen years.
  • To pay the income tax is not a fundamental duty.

9. In which of the following years the Fundamental Duties were added to the Constitution of India?

(a) 1965

(b) 1976

(c) 1979

(d) 1982

Correct Answer: (b) 1976

  • Fundamental Duties were incorporated in the Indian Constitution by the Constitution (Forty-Second Amendment) Act, 1976.

10. Which one among the following is a Fundamental Duties of citizens under the Constitution of India ?

(a) To provide cooperation to the people of the neighboring countries

(b) To protect monuments of national importance

(c) To defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so

(d) To know more and more about the history and culture of India

Correct Answer: (c) To defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so

  •  “To defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so” is a Fundamental Duty.
  • “To protect monuments of national importance” is part of Directive principles of State Policy.

Also Read in Indian Polity MCQs :

Chapterwise MCQs

Short Notes

Indian Polity MCQs – 9 (Directive principles of state policy)

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Indian Polity MCQs and Mock Tests

Indian Polity MCQs – 9 (Directive principles of state policy)

Directive principles of state policy MCQs with answers and explanations for preparation of UPSC, BPSC, UPPSC and other State PSC Examinations

Chapterwise MCQs

Short Notes

1. Directive principles of State Policy are mentioned in which part of the Indian constitution ?

(a) Part I

(b) Part VI

(c) Part VIII

(d) Part IV

Correct Answer: (d) Part IV

  • The directive principles of state policy provisions are contained in part IV (Article 36-51) of the Constitution of India.

2. Concept of welfare state in Indian Constitution is included in

(a) Fundamental Rights

(b) Directive Principles of State Policy

(c) Citizenship

(d) Provision of Election Commission

Correct Answer: (b) Directive Principles of State Policy

  • The directive principles of state policy are the guidelines given to the central and state government of India to establish a welfare state.
  • Dr. B.R. Ambedkar described these principles as ‘novel features’ of the Indian Constitution.
  • DPSPs are borrowed from the Irish Constitution.

3. The purpose of the inclusion of directive principles of state policy in the Indian constitution is to establish?

(a) Political Democracy

(b) Social Democracy

(c) Canadian Democracy

(d) Social and Economic Democracy

Correct Answer: (d) Social and Economic Democracy

  • The directive principles of state policy are the constitutional instructions to the State in legislative, executive and administrative matters.
  • They lay down the framework of a democratic socialist state, aiming at providing social and economic justice, and setting the path towards a welfare state.

4. Which part of the Constitution of India refers to the responsibility of the state towards international peace and security ?

(a) Fundamental Rights

(b) Directive Principles of state policy

(c) Emergency provisions

(d) Preamble to the constitution

Correct Answer: (b) Directive Principles of State Policy

  • Directive principles of state policy under article Article 51 states to promote international peace and security and maintain just and honorable relations between nations
  • To foster respect for international law and treaty obligations, and to encourage settlement of international disputes by arbitration.

5. Which of the following is/are included in the Directive Principle of state policy?

  1. Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced laborers.
  2. Prohibition of consumption of intoxicating drinks and of other drugs which are injurious to health except for medicinal purposes

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer: (b) 2 only

  • The directive Principles instruct the state to raise the level of nutrition and the standard of living and to improve public health by prohibiting consumption of intoxicating drinks and of other drugs which are injurious to health except for medicinal purposes.
  • Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced laborers is part of fundamental rights.

6. Which of the following statements about a uniform civil code is/are correct?

  1. A uniform civil code is a fundamental right of the citizens.
  2. The provision regarding a uniform civil code is contained in Part III of the constitution.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2

  • Uniform civil code is part of directive Principles of state policy mentioned in Article 44 of part 4 of the constitution.
  • Article 44 instructs the state to secure for all citizens a uniform civil code throughout the country.
  • They are non-justiciable in nature.

7. Directive Principles of State Policy direct the State for which of the following?

  1. To minimize inequalities in income, status, facilities and opportunities
  2. To separate judiciary from executive
  3. To protect the environment and to safeguard forests and wildlife

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 and 3

(c) 1 and 3

(d) 1, 2, and 3

Correct Answer: (d) 1, 2, and 3

  • Directive Principles of State Policy direct the State:
    • To promote the welfare of the people by securing social economic and political justice and to minimize inequalities in income, status, facilities and opportuni-ties(Article 38).
    • To separate the judiciary from the executive in the public services of the State (Article 50).
    • To protect and improve the environment and to safeguard forests and wildlife (Article 48 A).

8. Which of the following are included in the Directive Principles of State Policy in the Constitution of India?

  1. To promote equal justice and to provide free legal aid to the poor
  2. To make provision for just and humane conditions of work and maternity relief
  3. To Protect the monuments of national importance

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 and 3

(c) 1 and 3

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3

  • Directive Principles of State Policy direct the State:
    • To promote equal justice and to provide free legal aid to the poor (Article 39 A).
    • To make provision for just and humane conditions of work and maternity relief (Article 42).
    • To protect monuments, places and objects of artistic or historic interest which are declared to be of national importance (Article 49).
  •  

9. Consider the following statements:

Directive principles of State Policy are :

  1. Non amendable
  2. Non justiciable
  3. Fundamental in the governance of the country

Which of the above statements are correct?

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 1 and 3

(c) 2 and 3

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer: (c) 2 and 3

  • Directive principles of State Policy are fundamental in the governance of the country however they are not enforceable by courts(hence, non justiciable).
  • Directive principles of State Policy can be amended. The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 added four new Directive Principles to the original list. They require the State:
    • To secure opportunities for the healthy development of children (Article 39).
    • To promote equal justice and to provide free legal aid to the poor (Article 39 A).
    • To take steps to secure the participation of workers in the management of industries (Article 43 A).
    • To protect and improve the environment and to safeguard forests and wildlife (Article 48 A).
  • The 44th Amendment Act of 1978 added one more directive principle, which requires the State to minimize inequalities in income, status, facilities and opportunities (Article 38).
  • The 97th Amendment Act of 2011 added a new directive principle relating to cooperative societies.

10. Which directive principle among the following was added to the Directive Principles of State Policy by the 42nd Amendment to the Constitution ?

(a) Equal pay for equal work for both men and women

(b) Participation of workers in the management of industries

(c) Right to work, education and public assistance

(d) Securing living wage and human conditions of work to workers

Correct Answer: (b) Participation of workers in the management of industries

  • The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 added four new Directive Principles to the original list. They require the State:
    • To secure opportunities for the healthy development of children (Article 39).
    • To promote equal justice and to provide free legal aid to the poor (Article 39 A).
    • To take steps to secure the participation of workers in the management of industries (Article 43 A).
    • To protect and improve the environment and to safeguard forests and wildlife (Article 48 A).

Also Read in Indian Polity MCQs :

Chapterwise MCQs

Short Notes

Indian Polity MCQs – 8 (Fundamental Rights)

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Indian Polity MCQs and Mock Tests

Indian Polity MCQs – 8 (Fundamental Rights)

Fundamental Rights MCQs with answers and explanations for preparation of UPSC, BPSC, UPPSC and other State PSC Examinations

Chapterwise MCQs

Short Notes

1. In which part of the Indian Constitution, the Fundamental Rights are provided ?

(a) Part II

(b) Part III

(c) Part V

(d) Part IV

Correct Answer: (b) Part III

  • Part III of the Indian Constitution mentions about the Fundamental Rights of the citizens. 

2. According to the Constitution of India, which of the following rights is not included in the right to equality ?

(a) Equality before law

(b) Absolute equality

(c) Equality of opportunity

(d) Abolition of untouchability

Correct Answer: (b) Absolute equality

  • Right to Equality is the Fundamental Right mentioned in article 14 to article 18 of the constitution. 
  • It provides following rights to the citizens:
    • Equality before law (Article – 14) 
    • Prohibition of discrimination on the basis of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth(Article – 15)
    • Equal opportunity in public employment (Article – 16)
    • Abolition of untouchability (Article – 17)
    • Abolition of titles (Article – 18) 
  • According to the Constitution of India, the right to equality does not include absolute equality.

3. Which fundamental rights cannot be suspended even during an emergency?

(a) Right to Speech

(b) Right to Religion

(c) Right to Equality

(d) Right to Life and Personal Liberty

Correct Answer: (d) Right to Life and Personal Liberty

  • Right to Life and Personal Liberty cannot be suspended even during an emergency. 

4. Which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution contain the Right to Religious Freedom?

(a) Articles 25-28

(b) Articles 29-30

(c) Articles 32-35

(d) Articles 23-24

Correct Answer: (a) Articles 25-28

  • Articles 25-28 of the Indian Constitution contains the Right to Religious Freedom.
  • Article 25:  Subject to public order, morality and health and to the other provisions of this Part, all persons are equally entitled to freedom of conscience and the right freely to profess, practice and propagate religion. 
  • Article 26: Subject to public order, morality and health, every religious denomination shall have the right 
    • (a) To establish and maintain institutions for religious and charitable purposes
    • (b) To manage its own affairs in matters of religion 
    • (c) To own and acquire movable and immovable property
    • (d) To administer such property in accordance with the law.
  • Article 27: No person shall be compelled to pay any taxes, the proceeds of which are specifically appropriated in payment of expenses for the promotion or maintenance of any particular religion or religious denomination.
  • Article 28: (1) No religious instruction shall be provided in any educational institution wholly maintained out of State funds. (2) Nothing in clause (1) shall apply to an educational institution that is administered by the State but has been established under any endowment or trust which requires that religious instruction shall be imparted in such institution. (3) No person attending any educational institution recognised by the State or receiving aid out of State funds shall be required to take part in any religious instruction that may be imparted in such institution or to attend any religious worship that may be conducted in such institution.

5. Which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution guarantees ‘Equality Before the Law and Equal Protection of Law within the Territory of India’?

(a) 15

(b) 14

(c) 17

(d) 18

Correct Answer: (b) Article 14

  • Article 14 of the Indian Constitution guarantees equality before the law or the equal protection of the laws within the territory of India.

6. Which Article of the Indian Constitution abolishes Untouchability?

(a) Article 18

(b) Article 15

(c) Article 14

(d) Article 17

Correct Answer: (d) Article 17

  • Article 17 of the Indian Constitution abolishes Untouchability. 
  • It states: “Untouchability” is abolished and its practice in any form is forbidden. 
  • The enforcement of any disability arising out of “Untouchability” shall be an offense punishable in accordance with the law.

7. Which of the following is correct with respect to “Right Against Exploitation”?

(a) Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labor

(b) Freedom as to payment of taxes for the promotion of any particular religion

(c) Protection of  interests of minorities

(d) Equality before the law

Correct Answer: (a) Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labor

  • Articles 23-24 of the Indian Constitution contains the Right Against Exploitation.
  • Article 23: 
    • (1) Traffic in human beings and the beggar and other similar forms of forced labor are prohibited and any contravention of this provision shall be an offense punishable in accordance with the law. 
    • (2) Nothing in this article shall prevent the State from imposing compulsory service for public purposes and in imposing such service the State shall not make any discrimination on grounds only of religion, race, caste or class or any of them.
  • Article 24: No child below the age of fourteen years shall be employed to work in any factory or mine or engaged in any other hazardous employment.

8. Free & Compulsory education to all children from 6-14 years age was made a fundamental right by which of the following amendments?

(a) 82nd

(b) 83rd

(c) 84th

(d) 86th

Correct Answer: (d) 86th

  • Eighty-Sixth Amendment Act, 2002 made elementary education a fundamental right. 
  • The newly-added Article 21-A declared that “the State shall provide free and compulsory education to all children of the age of six to fourteen years in such manner as the State may determine”.

9. Which one of the following rights was described by Dr. Ambedkar as ‘The heart and soul of the Constitution’ ?

(a) Right of Equality

(b) Right to freedom

(c) Right to property

(d) Right to Constitutional Remedies

Correct Answer: (d) Right to Constitutional Remedies

  • Article 32 provides the right of constitutional remedies which means that a person has the right to move to the Supreme Court and High Court for getting his fundamental rights protected.
  • This article was described by Dr. Ambedkar as ‘The heart and soul of the Constitution’.

10. Which of the following writs means ‘to be informed’?

(a) Quo-Warranto

(b)  Prohibition

(c)  Mandamus

(d)  Certiorari

Correct Answer: (d)  Certiorari

  • Certiorari means ‘to be certified’ or ‘to be informed’. 
  • It is issued by a higher court to a lower court asking to transfer a case pending with the latter to itself or to squash the order of the latter in a case. 
  • It is usually issued in case of excess of jurisdiction or lack of jurisdiction exercised by the lower court, or an error of law.

Also Read in Indian Polity MCQs :

Chapterwise MCQs

Short Notes

Indian Polity MCQs – 7 (Citizenship)

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Indian Polity MCQs and Mock Tests

Indian Polity MCQs – 7 (Citizenship)

Citizenship MCQs with answers and explanations for preparation of UPSC, BPSC, UPPSC and other State PSC Examinations

Chapterwise MCQs

Short Notes

1. Which one of the following is not a feature of the Indian Constitution ?

(a) Federal Government

(b) Independence of Judiciary

(c) Parliamentary Government

(d) Dual Citizenship

Correct Answer: (d) Dual Citizenship

  • Though the Indian Constitution is federal and envisages a dual polity (Centre and states), it provides for only a single citizenship.
  • There is no separate state citizenship.
  • In the USA, each person is not only a citizen of the USA but also of the particular state to which he belongs.
  • In India, all citizens irrespective of the state in which they are born or reside enjoy the same political and civil rights of citizenship

2. In which part of the Constitution, details related to citizenship are mentioned?

(a) Part I

(b) Part II

(c) Part III

(d) Part IV

Correct Answer: (b) Part II

  • Details of Citizenship are mentioned in part ll(Article 5-11) of the constitution.

3. Which of the following statements are true regarding the citizenship of India?

  1. A citizen of India is anyone born on or after 26th January 1950 
  2. Anyone born before July 1, 1987 is Indian citizen by birth irrespective of his parents nationality

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

  • The Constitution deals with citizenship from Articles 5 to 11 under Part 2 .
  • However, it neither contains any detailed provisions in this regard. 
  • It only identifies the persons who became citizens of India at its commencement (i.e., on January 26, 1950).
  • A person born in India on or after 26th January 1950 but before 1st July, 1987 is a citizen of India by birth irrespective of the nationality of his parents.

4. Indian constitution took the concept of single citizenship from?

(a) USA

(b) UK

(c) Australia

(d) Japan

Correct Answer: (b) UK

  • Though the Indian Constitution is federal in nature and envisages a dual polity (Centre and states), it provides for only a single citizenship.
  • The concept of single citizenship in India has been inspired from the United Kingdom’s constitution. 
  • The other federal states like the USA and Switzerland, on the other hand, have adopted the system of dual citizenship.

5. In which list of the Indian Constitution is the Citizenship included?

(a) State List

(b) Union List

(c) Concurrent List

(d) None of the above

Correct Answer: (b) Union List

  • Citizenship is listed in the Union List under the Constitution of India. 
  • Indian Constitution empowers the Parliament to enact a law on the matters relating to citizenship.
  • Accordingly, the Parliament has enacted the Citizenship Act (1955), which has been amended from time to time.

6. The Constitution defines citizens as ?

(a) Any person born in India

(b) Any person who spends more than 5 years in India

(c) Any person who is born in India or his/her parents are born in India

(d) Constitution does not define citizen

Correct Answer: (d) Constitution does not define citizen

  • The Constitution does not define the term ‘Citizen’.
  • It only identifies the persons who became citizens of India at its commencement (i.e., on January 26, 1950) in part 2, however, It does not deal with the issue of acquisition or loss of citizenship after its commencement.
  • It empowers the Parliament to enact a law on the matters relating to citizenship.
  • Accordingly, the Parliament has enacted the Citizenship Act (1955), which has been amended from time to time as per the needs of time.

7. Which article of the Constitution contains the provisions of citizenship to persons migrated to India from Pakistan?

(a) Article 5

(b) Article 6

(c) Article 7

(d) Article 8

Correct Answer: (b) Article 6

  • Article 6 provides for the rights of citizenship of certain people who have migrated to India from Pakistan.

8. Indian citizenship can be acquired through which of the following?

  1. By descent
  2. By naturalization
  3. By registration
  4. All of the above

Correct Answer: (d) All of the above

  • The Citizenship Act, 1955 provides for acquisition and loss of citizenship after the commencement of the Constitution.
  • It prescribes five ways of acquiring the Indian citizenship:
    • Birth
    • Descent
    • Registration
    • Naturalization 
    • Incorporation of territory

9. Under the Citizenship Act, 1955, In which of the following ways can a person become a citizen of India?

  1. By Birth
  2. By Descent
  3. By Registration
  4. By Nationalization
  5. By Incorporation of territory

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

(b) 1 and 2

(c) 1, 2, 3 and 5

(d) 3, 4 and 5

Correct Answer: (c) 1, 2, 3 and 5

  • The Citizenship Act, 1955 provides for acquisition and loss of citizenship after the commencement of the Constitution.
  • It prescribes five ways of acquiring the Indian citizenship:
    • Birth
    • Descent
    • Registration
    • Naturalization 
    • Incorporation of territory
  • Naturalization, Not Nationalization, is a way of acquiring Indian citizenship.

10. Which of the following statements is true regarding Citizenship Amendment Act 2019?

  1. It makes amendments in the Citizenship Act 1955.
  2. It provides for Indian Citizenship to persecuted religious minorities from Afghanistan, Bangladesh and Pakistan who are mainly Muslim

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) None of the above

Correct Answer: (a) Only 1

  • Citizenship Amendment Act 2019 amends the Citizenship Act of 1955. 
  • It provides for Indian citizenship for persecuted religious minorities from Afghanistan, Bangladesh and Pakistan who are Hindus, Sikhs, Buddhists, Jains, Parsis or Christians but not Muslims. 
  • They must have entered India before December 2014. 

Also Read in Indian Polity MCQs :

Chapterwise MCQs

Short Notes

Indian Polity MCQs – 6 (Union and it’s Territory)

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Indian Polity MCQs and Mock Tests

Indian Polity MCQs – 6 (Union and it’s Territory)

Union and it’s Territory MCQs with answers and explanations for preparation of UPSC, BPSC, UPPSC and other State PSC Examinations

Chapterwise MCQs

Short Notes

1. In the Constitution of India, The term ‘Federal’ is mentioned in :

(a) Preamble

(b) Part-III of the Constitution 

(c) Article 368 of the Constitution 

(d) Not mentioned anywhere

Correct Answer:  (d) Not mentioned anywhere

  • Term ‘Federal’ is not mentioned in the constitution.
  • Article – 1 describes India ‘that is Bharat’  as a ‘Union of States’ .
  • Reasons for calling India ‘Union’ and NOT a Federation:
    •  India is not the result of an agreement among the states like the American Federation.
    • In India, The states can not break away from the union. The Union is indestructible which integrates various destructible states.

2. Consider the following statements with reference to the linguistic reorganization of states in independent India:

  1. The separate state of Andhra for the Telugu people came into existence in 1953.
  2. Jawaharlal Nehru was particularly in favor of the movement for linguistic reorganization of states that came in the wake of the success of the Andhra movement.

Which one of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer: (a) Only 1

  • The separate state of Andhra for the Telugu people came into existence in 1953.
  • The Linguistic Provinces committee consisting of Jawahar Lal Nehru, Sardar Vallahbhai Patel and Pattabhi Sitaramayya, submitted its report in April 1949.
  • It rejected language as the basis for reorganization of states.

3. Consider the following statements:

  1. Parliament can increase the area of any state without the consent of the state legislature.
  2. Parliament can alter the name of any state without the consent of the state legislature.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: (c) Both 1 and 2

  • Constitution of India rants following powers to the Parliament:
    • Parliament can form a new state by separating any territory from any state or by uniting two or more states
    • Parliament can form a new state by uniting any territory to any state
    • Parliament can increase the area of any state
    • Parliament can decrease the area of any state
    • Parliament can alter the boundaries of any state
    • Parliament can alter the name of any state.

A bill which proposes any of the above changes can be introduced in the Parliament only with the prior recommendation of the President. However, The President/Parliament is not bound by the views expressed by the state legislature and may either completely or partially accept or reject them.

4. In which schedule of Indian Constitution, the territorial extent of Indian states and union Territories is prescribed?

(a) 1st schedule 

(b) 2nd schedule 

(c) 3rd schedule 

(d) 4th schedule

Correct Answer: (a) 1st schedule

  • First schedule lists the states and territories of India.
  • Currently in 2023, there are 28 states and 8 Union territories in the country. 
  • Before 2019, there were 29 states in India, however, In 2019, Parliament passed the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, which  reorganized the state of J&K into two union territories – Jammu and Kashmir in the west and Ladakh in the east, with effect from 31 October 2019.

5. Consider the following statements:

  1. The Parliament is empowered to alter the boundaries of any existing State of India.
  2. A Bill pertaining to the alteration of the boundaries of any existing State of India can be introduced only in the Rajya Sabha with the prior recommendation of the President.

Which one of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)  Only 1

(b)  Only 2

(c)  Both 1 and 2    

(d)  Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer: (a) Only 1

  • The Parliament is empowered to alter the boundaries of any existing State of India.
  • A Bill pertaining to the alteration of the boundaries of any existing State of India can be introduced in any house of the parliament with the prior recommendation of the President.

6. The boundary of a State in India can be altered through the procedure laid down in:

(a)  Article 368              

(b)  Article 130

(c)  Article 70                     

(d)  Article 3

Correct Answer: (d) Article 3

  • Article – 3 enables Parliament to alter the boundaries of any state.
  • A bill which proposes to alter the boundaries of any state can be introduced in the Parliament only with the prior recommendation of the President.
  • Before recommending the bill to Parliament, the President has to refer the same to the concerned state legislature for expressing its views within a specified period of time. 
  • The President/Parliament is not bound by the views expressed by the state legislature and may either completely or partially accept or reject them.

7. Who among the following was the head of the Linguistic Provinces Commission formed in the year 1948, to enquire into the desirability of linguistic provinces?

(a)  Jawaharlal Nehru                       

(b)  Justice S.K. Dhar

(c)  Justice Fazi Alt                         

(d)  Pattabhi Sitaramayya

Correct Answer: (b)  Justice S.K. Dhar

  • After the prolonged demand for reorganization of states on linguistic basis by various South Indian states, the Government of India appointed the Linguistic Provinces Commission under the chairmanship of S.K. Dhar to examine the viability of this.
  • However, the commission in its report rejected the idea of linguistic reorganization and recommended the reorganization of states on the basis of administrative convenience.

8. In 1953, Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru formed a Commission to study the reorganization of states on a linguistic basis under the chairmanship of:

(a)  T.T. Krishnamachari                    

(b)  Vallabhbhai Patel

(c)  Fazl Ali                       

(d)  G.B. Pant

Correct Answer: (c)  Fazl Ali     

  • Following the Prolonged agitation and the death of Potti Sriramulu, the Government of India created the first linguistic state, known as Andhra state, by separating the Telugu speaking areas from the Madras state.
  • This further  intensified the demand from other regions for creation of states on linguistic basis.
  • Hence, the Government appointed a three member states Reorganisation Commission under the chairmanship of Fazl Ali and other two members being K.M. Panikkar and H.N. Kunzru.
  • The Commission submitted its report in September 1955 and on the whole accepted the linguistic reorganization of states.
  • Government of India accepted most of the recommendations of states Reorganisation Commission and Parliament passed States Reorganisation Act, 1956 and the 7th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1956.
  • This led to the creation of 14 states and 6 union territories on 1st November, 1956.

9. The Parliament of India passed the States Reorganisation Act in 1956 which created : 

(a)  16 States and 3 Union Territories         

(b)  15 States and 5 Union Territories

(c)  14 States and 6 Union Territories         

(d)  24 States and 9 Union Territories

Correct Answer:  (c)  14 States and 6 Union Territories   

  • States Reorganisation Act, 1956 created 14 states and 6 union territories.
  • More details in above question

10. The States of the India can be reorganized or their boundaries altered by:

(a)  The Union Parliament with a simple majority in the ordinary process of legislation.

(b) Two-thirds majority of both the Houses of Parliament.

(c) Two-thirds majority of both the Houses of Parliament and the consent of the legislature of the concerned States.

(d)  An executive order of the Union Government with the consent of the concerned State Governments.

Correct Answer: (a)  The Union Parliament with a simple majority in the ordinary process of legislation.

  • As per Article – 4,  laws made for the establishment of new states or changing the  areas, boundaries or names of existing states under Articles 2 OR 3 shall not be considered as amendments of the Constitution under Article 368.
  • Such laws can be passed by a simple majority and by following ordinary legislative process. However, prior recommendation of the President will be mandatory as mentioned above.

Also Read in Indian Polity MCQs :

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Short Notes

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