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World Geography MCQs – 06 (Oceans)

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World Geography MCQs – 06 (Oceans)

Oceans MCQs with answers and explanations for all examinations.

Free Mock Tests

Build Your Basics

1. The main cause of the origin of tides in the ocean are :

(a) Gravitational force of the sun
(b) Monsoon Climate
(c) Due to the force of gravity of both the sun and the moon
(d) Sea water streams

Correct Answer – (c) Due to the force of gravity of both the sun and the moon

  • The rhythmic rise and fall of ocean water twice in a day is called a tide. 
  • The strong gravitational pull exerted by the sun and the moon on the earth’s surface causes the tides. 
  • As the sun is far away from the earth as compared to the moon, the gravitational pull of the sun is lesser over the Earth than the moon. This is the reason that the moon mainly determines the magnitude of the tide. 
  • The water of the earth closer to the moon gets pulled under the influence of moon’s gravitational force and causes high tide whereas the side opposite from the moon experiences low tide.

2. Which of the following benefits are related to high tide?

1. High tides help in navigation.
2. The high tides also help in fishing.
3. The rise and fall of water due to tides is used to generate electricity at some places.

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) All of the above

Correct Answer – (d) All of the above

  • High tides help in navigation as they raise the water level close to the shores which helps the ships to arrive at the harbor easily. 
  • The high tides also help in fishing. More fish come closer to the shore during the high tide. This enables fishermans to get more catches. 
  • The rise and fall of water due to tides is being used to generate electricity in some places by harnessing this tidal energy.

3. Consider the following statements:

1. Spring tides are formed when the sun and the moon are in line with each other.
2. Neap tides are formed when the sun and the moon are at the right angle to each other.

Which of the above statements are true?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None of the Above

Correct Answer – (c) Both 1 and 2 

  • Both the statements are true.
  • Spring tides:
    • These are formed when the sun and the moon are in line with each other and pull the ocean water in the same direction.
    • This causes higher high tides and lowers low tides.
    • It can occur twice in a lunar month.
  • Neap tides:
    • These are formed when the sun and the moon are at the right angle to each other.
    • As the gravitational pull of the moon is canceled out by the gravitational pull of the sun to some extent, it causes lower high tides and higher low tides.

4. Consider the following statements regarding the Pacific Ring of Fire :

1. It is characterized by active volcanoes.
2. There are frequent earthquakes in this area.

Which of the above statements are true?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None of the Above

Correct Answer – (c) Both 1 and 2 

  • The Pacific Ring of Fire is a Circum-Pacific Belt along the Pacific Ocean characterized by active volcanoes and frequent earthquakes.
  • Its length is approximately 40,000 kilometers which consists of boundaries between several tectonic plates.
  • Mount Fuji, which is Japan’s most famous mountain and an active volcano, is part of Ring of Fire.
  • About more than 75 percent of earth’s volcanoes and 90 percent of earthquakes exist here.

5. The Mariana Trench is part of which among the following ocean :

(a) Pacific Ocean
(b) Atlantic Ocean
(c) Indian Ocean
(d) None of the Above

Correct Answer – (a) Pacific Ocean

  • The oceanic trenches are long and narrow depressions of the ocean floor.
  • The Mariana Trench is an oceanic trench situated in the western Pacific Ocean.
  • It is the deepest oceanic trench on Earth.
  • Its deepest point is called Challenger Deep.
  • Tonga Trench is located in the South Pacific Ocean and is the second deepest trench. Its deepest point is called Horizon Deep.

6. Consider the following statements regarding the Pacific Ring of Fire :

1. Planktons are found in continental shelves.
2. The continental shelf off the eastern coast of India is much wider than that of the western coast.

Which of the above statements are true?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None of the Above

Correct Answer – (c) Both 1 and 2

  • The Ocean floors are broadly divided into four major parts:
    • Continental shelf 
    • Continental slope
    • Abyssal plains
    • The ocean deeps
  • Continental shelf is the part of a continent that is submerged in a shallow level of water.
  • The shallow water on the Continental shelf allows sunlight to reach to the bottom and helps in growth of microscopic plants and animals called planktons. These planktons act as food for fishes.
  • The continental shelf off the eastern coast of India is much wider than that of the western coast.

7. Consider the following statements :

1. Coral reefs are generally found deep inside the seafloor or Abyssal plains.
2. Submarine Canyons are generally found on the continental shelf.

Which of the above statements are true?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None of the Above

Correct Answer – (b) 2 only 

  • Coral reefs need sunlight to survive hence they can exist only in the shallow water areas of continental shelf.
  • Coral reefs do not exist in seafloor or Abyssal plains.
  • Submarine Canyons are ‘steep sided valleys’ created on continental shelves and can extend till Continental slope.
  • They are similar to the gorges found on the continents.

8. The largest continental shelf of the world is located in which among the following oceans ?

(a) Pacific Ocean
(b) Atlantic Ocean
(c) Indian Ocean
(d) Arctic Ocean

Correct Answer – (d) Arctic Ocean

  • The largest continental shelf of the world is the Siberian Shelf in the Arctic Ocean.
  • It is 1500 kilometers in width.

9. Consider the following statements :

1. Continental slopes connect Continental shelf to Abyssal plains.
2. Abyssal plains are mostly flat.

Which of the above statements are true?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None of the Above

Correct Answer – (c) Both 1 and 2 

  • Continental slopes connect Continental shelf to Abyssal plains.
  • There are very few living organisms on the continental slopes as compared to the continental  shelf.
  • Abyssal plains are mostly flat and featureless plains existing on the deep ocean floor.
  • Abyssal plains cover more than 50% of Earth’s total surface.

10. Consider the following statements about the Submarine ridges :

1. They exist in deep ocean floors.
2. They are generally associated with earthquakes.

Which of the above statements are true?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None of the Above

Correct Answer – (c) Both 1 and 2 

  • Submarine ridges also known as mid-oceanic ridges exist in deep ocean floors(almost near the middle of the oceans ).
  • They are generally associated with frequent earthquakes and volcanism.

11. The volcanos rising above the ocean floor whose top gets flattened by erosion are called ?

(a) Seamounts
(b) Guyots
(c) Trenches
(d) None of the Above

Correct Answer – (b) Guyots

  • Majority of the volcanoes of the world are found in the seas.
  • They are scattered over the entire sea floor
  • The volcanos rising above the ocean floor whose top gets flattened by erosion are called Guyots.
  • The volcanoes rising above the ocean floor whose top is intact and sharp are called Seamounts.
  • In case when volcanoes rise above the sea, they create volcanic islands. Hawaii islands are examples of such islands.

12. Consider the following statements :

1. The oceans get heated and cooled slower than the land surfaces.
2. The temperature of Ocean surface water increases from the equator towards the poles.

Which of the above statements are true?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None of the Above

Correct Answer – (a) 1 only 

  •  The oceans get heated and cooled slower than the land surfaces. Due to this feature, areas lying near the sea experience moderate climate.
  • The temperature of Ocean surface water increases from the equator towards the poles. This is caused due to lower insolation received by the ocean surface from the equator towards the poles.

13. Consider the following statements :

1. Lagoon is a shallow body of sea water.
2. Coral Reefs need warm and shallow water to grow.

Which of the above statements are true?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None of the Above

Correct Answer – (c) Both 1 and 2 

  • Lagoon is a shallow body of sea water or brackish water separated from the sea by a barrier.
  • The biggest lagoon in the world is in New Caledonia which is a French Pacific territory. 
  • It’s a UNESCO World Heritage Site and a major tourist destination. 
  • Coral Reefs need warm and shallow water to grow.
  • Due to high levels of biodiversity, they are also called ‘Rainforests of the sea’.
  • The largest Coral reef in the world is the Great Barrier Reef. 
  • It is located in Australia.

14. On the basis of temperature, oceans are vertically divided into how many parts ?

(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5

Correct Answer – (b) 3

  • Sea temperature decreases with increasing depth but the rate of decrease of temperature is not uniform.
  • On the basis of temperature, oceans are vertically divided into three parts:
  • Photic Zone or Euphotic Zone: 
    • Upper layer of the ocean till 100 meters
    • The temperature is almost constant
  • Thermocline: 
    • Lies between 100-1000 meters 
    • There is a steep fall in the temperature
  • Deep Zone: 
    • Below 1000 meters
    • The temperature is near 0 °C(slightly higher than zero).

Also Read in World Geography MCQs :

World Geography MCQs – 05 (Universe and Solar System)

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World Geography MCQs – 05 (Universe and Solar System)

Universe and Solar System MCQs with answers and explanations for all examinations.

Free Mock Tests

Build Your Basics

1. Which of the following planets have rings around them:

1. Jupiter
2. Saturn
3. Mars
4. Uranus

Choose from the following options:

(a) 1 and 2 Only
(b) 1, 2 and 3 Only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 Only
(d) 1, 2 and 4 Only

Correct Answer –  (d) 1, 2 and 4 Only

  • Jupiter, Saturn and Uranus have rings around them. 
  • These are belts of small debris. 
  • These rings may be seen from the earth with the help of powerful telescopes.

2. Which of the following is correctly matched:

1. Brightest Planet → Venus
2. Largest Planet → Jupiter
3. Earth’s Twin → Venus

Choose the correct matches from the following options:

(a) 1 and 2 Only
(b) 2 and 3 Only
(c) 1 and 3 Only
(d) All are correctly matched

Correct Answer – (d) All are correctly matched

  • Venus is called Earth’s twin because of its similar size, mass, and composition to Earth.
  • Venus is the second planet from the sun in terms of distance.
  • Venus is the brightest planet in the solar system, and is often visible in the night sky within a few hours of sunset or before sunrise therefore it is also called the “Morning star” or “Evening star”.
  • Jupiter is the largest in the Solar System. 
  • It is the fifth planet from the Sun in terms of distance.

3. Hottest Planet in the Solar System is :

(a) Venus
(b) Mercury
(c) Mars
(d) Jupiter

Correct Answer – (a) Venus 

  • Venus is the hottest planet in our solar system.
  • Venus has a thick atmosphere made up of greenhouse gasses like carbon dioxide which traps heat and creates a greenhouse effect. 
  • This greenhouse effect causes the rise in surface temperature of Venus to around 465°C (865°F).

4. Which among the following planets is called Red planet :

(a) Venus
(b) Mercury
(c) Mars
(d) Jupiter

Correct Answer – (c) Mars 

  • Mars is known as the red planet because it looks red from Earth. 
  • The reddish color comes from the high concentration of iron oxide in the rocks of the Martian surface.
  • Phobos and Deimos are the two moons of Mars.

5. The Asteroid Belt is located between which among the following planets :

(a) Venus & Mercury
(b) Venus & Earth
(c) Mars & Earth
(d) Mars & Jupiter

Correct Answer – (d) Mars & Jupiter

  • The Asteroid Belt is located between Mars & Jupiter.
  • It contains a great many solid and irregularly shaped bodies/protoplanets called asteroids.
  • Ceres is the largest asteroid.

6. Europa and Ganymede are the moons of ? :

(a) Venus
(b) Mercury
(c) Mars
(d) Jupiter

Correct Answer – (d) Jupiter

  • Europa and Ganymede are the moons of Jupiter.
  • Ganymede is the largest moon in the solar system.

7. Titan is the moons of ? :

(a) Venus
(b) Saturn
(c) Mars
(d) Jupiter

Correct Answer – (b) Saturn 

  • Titan is the largest moon of Saturn and the second largest moon in the Solar System.
  • It is the only moon known to have an atmosphere denser than that of Earth’s.

8. The brightest star outside our solar system is ?

(a) Sirius
(b) Proxima Centauri
(c) Alpha Centauri
(d) None of the above

Correct Answer – (a) Sirius

  • The brightest star outside our solar system is Sirius, also known as the ‘Dog Star’.

9. Consider the following statements about Black holes:

1. The center of the black hole is called the singularity.
2. Black holes have massive gravitational force.

Which of the above assertions is/are true?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None of the Above

Correct Answer – (c) Both 1 and 2 

  • Black holes are the combination of large mass and small size having high density.
  • The center of the black hole is called the Singularity.
  • A black hole exerts such massive gravitational force that its escape velocity is equal or more than speed of light.

10. Consider the following statements about Galaxy :

1. We live in the galaxy called the Milky Way.
2. It is a spiral galaxy.

Which of the above assertions is/are true?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None of the Above

Correct Answer – (c) Both 1 and 2 

  • Galaxies can be of various kinds like elliptical, spirals etc.
  • We live in the galaxy called the Milky Way.
  • It is a spiral galaxy.
  • The Andromeda Galaxy is the closest large galaxy to the Milky Way which can even be seen from earth with naked eyes.

11. Consider the following statements about Stars:

1. Stars shine because nuclear fission occurs in their core.
2. Proxima centauri is the closest star to Earth after the sun.

Which of the above assertions is/are true?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None of the Above

Correct Answer – (b) 2 only 

  • Stars shine because nuclear fusion occurs in their core.
  • Nuclear fusion converts lighter elements into heavier ones and in the process releases tremendous amounts of energy.
  • Proxima centaury is the closest star to Earth after the Sun. It is about 4.3 light-years away from Earth.

12. Consider the following statements about about Sun:

1. The Sun is not a solid object but rather a big ball.
2. The Sun is mostly made of Hydrogen and Helium.

Which of the above assertions is/are true?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None of the Above

Correct Answer – (c) Both 1 and 2 

  • Both the statements are true.
  • The Sun is not a solid object but rather a big ball.
  • It is mostly made of Hydrogen and Helium.

13. Consider the following statements::

1. Comets can have a long tail-like structure attached to them.
2. Meteors burn up in the atmosphere and can never reach the earth surface.

Which of the above assertions is/are true?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None of the Above

Correct Answer – (a) 1 only 

  • Comets are rocky and icy objects that move in long, highly elliptical orbits around the Sun.
  • When they get closer to the Sun, they warm up, causing the ice in the comets to vaporize and form long “tails”.
  • A Meteor is an object from outer space that enters Earth’s atmosphere, but does not land on Earth as it gets burned in the atmosphere . However, some meteors are large enough to reach the earth surface. Those are called Meteorites.

14. Which among the following planets is called Blue Planet ?

(a) Venus
(b) Mercury
(c) Mars
(d) Earth

Correct Answer – (d) Earth

  • Earth is called the “Blue Planet” due to the abundant water on its surface.
  • Two-thirds of the earth’s surface is covered with water.

13. Parsec is used to measure which among the following ?

(a) Density of stars
(b) Astronomical distances
(c) Brightness of stars
(d) Orbital velocity of planets

Correct Answer – (b) Astronomical distances

  • A parsec (pc) is a unit of length used to measure the Astronomical distances outside the solar system. 
  • It’s the largest unit of distance used in astronomy. 
  • One parsec is approximately equal to 3.26 light-years.

Also Read in World Geography MCQs :

World Geography MCQs – 04 (Atmosphere)

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World Geography MCQs – 04 (Atmosphere)

Atmosphere MCQs with answers and explanations for all examinations.

Free Mock Tests

Build Your Basics

1. What is the correct sequence of gasses found in the atmosphere on the basis of the percentage in descending order ?

(a) Nitrogen > oxygen > helium > carbon dioxide
(b) Nitrogen > oxygen > carbon dioxide > argon
(c) Nitrogen > oxygen > argon > carbon dioxide
(d) Nitrogen > oxygen > methane > carbon dioxide

Correct Answer – (c) Nitrogen > oxygen > argon > carbon dioxide

  • Atmosphere is a mixture of many gasses in which following are the major gasses:
    • Nitrogen – 78%
    • Oxygen – 21%
    • Argon – 0.93%
    • Carbon dioxide – 0.03%
    • Other gasses – 0.04%

2. Consider the following statements:

1. Nitrogen is the most plentiful gas in the air.
2. Plants fulfill their need for nitrogen, directly from the air.

Which of the above statements is/are true?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 & 2
(d) None of the above

Correct Answer – (a) 1 only

  • Nitrogen is the most plentiful gas in the air(78% of all the gasses). 
  • When we inhale, we take some amount of nitrogen into our lungs and exhale it. 
  • Plants also need nitrogen for their survival(as it is a vital nutrient) however they cannot take nitrogen directly from the air. 
  • Bacteria that live in the soil and roots of some plants take nitrogen from the air and change its form so that plants can use it. These types of bacterias are called Nitrogen-fixing bacteria.
  • The bacteria take nitrogen from the air as a gas and release it into the soil, mainly as ammonia which can be used by plants.
  • Example – Rhizobium, Azotobacter.

3. On the basis of temperature, the atmosphere has been divided into how many layers ?

(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 5
(d) None of the above

Correct Answer – (c) 5

  • On the basis of temperature, the atmosphere has been divided into five layers which are as following:
    • Troposphere
    • Stratosphere
    • Mesosphere
    • Thermosphere or Ionosphere
    • Exosphere

4. The lowest layer of Earth’s atmosphere is ?

(a) Troposphere
(b) Stratosphere
(c) Mesosphere
(d) Thermosphere

Correct Answer – (a) Troposphere 

  • Troposphere is the lowest layer of Earth’s atmosphere.
  • The troposphere starts at the surface of the earth and goes up to a height of 8 km at poles and up to 18 kms at the equator.
  • In the Troposphere, Temperature decreases with increase in height.

5. All the weather related phenomena like rainfall, fog and hailstorm occur in which layer of atmosphere ?

(a) Troposphere
(b) Stratosphere
(c) Mesosphere
(d) Thermosphere

Correct Answer – (a) Troposphere 

  • The troposphere is the most important layer of the atmosphere. 
  • Its average height is 13 kilometers.
  • Almost all the weather phenomena like rainfall, fog and hailstorm occur in this layer.

6. The layer of the atmosphere found above the troposphere is ?

(a) Troposphere
(b) Stratosphere
(c) Mesosphere
(d) Thermosphere

Correct Answer – (b) Stratosphere 

  • The layer of the atmosphere found above the troposphere is the Stratosphere .
  • It is the second layer of atmosphere.
  • It goes up to 50 km from the surface of earth.
  • The stratosphere is almost free from clouds and other associated weather phenomena hence it is most ideal for flying airplanes.
  • Only exception is polar stratospheric clouds which occur mainly at high latitudes during the extreme winter.

7. The Ozone layer is found in which among the following layers of atmosphere ?

(a) Troposphere
(b) Stratosphere
(c) Mesosphere
(d) Thermosphere

Correct Answer – (b) Stratosphere 

  • The Ozone layer is found in the Stratosphere.
  • This Ozone layer is very vital in preserving life on earth as it absorbs UV rays coming from the sun and protects the earth from harmful radiations.

8. Consider the following statements :

1. The transitional zone between Troposphere and Stratosphere is called Tropopause.
2. The transitional zone between Stratosphere and Mesosphere is called Stratopause

Which of the above assertions is/are true?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None of the Above

Correct Answer – (c) Both 1 and 2 

  • Both the statements are correct.
  • The transitional zone between Troposphere and Stratosphere is called Tropopause.
  • Mesosphere is the third layer of the atmosphere. It lies above the stratosphere and extends up to the height of 80 km. 
  • The transitional zone between Stratosphere and Mesosphere is called Stratopause

9. Which among the following is the coldest atmospheric layer ?

(a) Troposphere
(b) Stratosphere
(c) Mesosphere
(d) Thermosphere

Correct Answer – (c) Mesosphere 

  • Mesosphere is the third layer of the atmosphere and the coldest among all.
  • Temperature in the Mesosphere  can reach up to -173 degrees Celsius.
  • Meteors while entering into earth’s atmosphere get burned in this layer hence saving the earth’s surface and its inhabitants.

10. Which among the following atmospheric layers reflects the radio waves transmitted from the earth ?

(a) Troposphere
(b) Stratosphere
(c) Mesosphere
(d) Thermosphere

Correct Answer – (d) Thermosphere

  • Thermosphere starts at Mesopause at 80 km and extends up to 400 km.
  • It  reflects the radio waves transmitted from the earth back and important for radio/satellite communication on earth.
  • The temperature increases with the increase in height in the Thermosphere.

11. Ionosphere is part of which among the following layers ?

(a) Troposphere
(b) Stratosphere
(c) Mesosphere
(d) Thermosphere

Correct Answer – (d) Thermosphere

  • The Ionosphere is a part of the thermosphere.
  • The lower Thermosphere is called the Ionosphere which contains electrically charged particles known as ions.

12. Which among the following is the outermost layer of the atmosphere ?

(a) Exosphere
(b) Stratosphere
(c) Mesosphere
(d) Thermosphere

Correct Answer – (a) Exosphere

  • Exosphere is the outermost layer of the atmosphere.
  • Molecules found here have extremely low density and can escape into space.
  • Most artificial satellites orbit earth in this layer.

13. Which of the following assertions is/are true?

1. The gravitational force of the earth holds the atmosphere around it.
2. The changes in the atmosphere produce changes in the weather and climate.
3. Plant and animal kingdom together make biosphere or the living world.

(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) All of the above

Correct Answer – (d) All of the above

  • The gravitational force of the earth holds the atmosphere around it. It protects us from the harmful rays and scorching heat of the sun. 
  • The atmosphere consists of a number of gasses, dust and water vapor. 
  • The changes in the atmosphere produce changes in the weather and climate. Plant and animal kingdom together make the biosphere or the living world. 
  • It is a narrow zone of the earth where land, water and air interact with each other to support life.

Also Read in World Geography MCQs :

World Geography MCQs – 03 (Types of Winds)

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World Geography MCQs – 03 (Types of Winds)

Types of winds MCQs with answers and explanations for all examinations.

Free Mock Tests

Build Your Basics

1. Which of the following combinations is/are right?

1. Winds that blow constantly throughout the year in a particular direction → Local winds
2. Winds that change their direction in different seasons → Seasonal winds
3. Winds that blow only during a particular period of the day or year in a small area → Permanent winds

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 2 and 3

Correct Answer – (b) 2 only 

  • There are three main types of wind as mentioned below:
  • Permanent winds:
    • These winds blow constantly throughout the year in a particular direction.
    • The trade winds, westerlies and easterlies are the permanent Winds.
  • Seasonal winds:
    • These winds change their direction in different seasons. For example monsoons in India.
  • Local winds:
  • These blow only during a particular period of the day or year in a small area. 
  • Example – Land and Sea breeze, Loo( the hot and dry local wind of northern plains of India) etc.

2. The pattern of planetary winds is affected by which among the following :

1. Rotation of the earth
2. Distribution of continents and oceans
3. Emergence of pressure belts
4. Migration of pressure belts

Which of the above assertions is/are true?

(a) 1 & 2 only
(b) 2, 3 & 4 only
(c) All of the above
(d) None of the Above

Correct Answer – (c) All of the above

  • Planetary winds are a type of atmospheric circulation that occurs on a planet due to the differential heating of the atmosphere.
  • The pattern of planetary winds are mainly affected by the following factors:
    • Rotation of the earth
    • Distribution of continents and oceans
    • Emergence of pressure belts
    • Migration of pressure belts
    • Latitudinal variation of atmospheric heating

3. Consider the following statements:

1. The low pressure area is associated with cloudy sky and wet weather.
2. High pressure is associated with clear and sunny skies.

Which of the above assertions is/are true?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None of the Above

Correct Answer – (c) Both 1 and 2 

  • Air pressure is defined as the pressure exerted by the weight of air on the earth’s surface. 
  • The air pressure is highest at sea level and decreases with height. 
  • Low pressure is associated with cloudy skies and wet weather. 
  • High pressure is associated with clear and sunny skies.

4. Consider the following statements :

1. Horizontally the distribution of air pressure is influenced by temperature of air at a given place.
2. Air always moves from high pressure areas to low pressure areas.

Which of the above assertions is/are true?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None of the Above

Correct Answer – (c) Both 1 and 2 

  • Horizontally the distribution of air pressure is influenced by temperature of air at a given place. 
  • In areas where the temperature is high and the air gets heated and rises. This creates a low-pressure area which is a cause of cyclones.
  • In areas having lower temperatures, the air is cold and heavy. Heavy air sinks and creates a high pressure area which results in calm weather. 
  • The air always moves from high pressure areas to low pressure areas.

5. Consider the following local winds and the location in which they blow:

1. Harmattan → Central and West Africa
2. Ghibli → Libya
3. Chinook → North America

Which of the above are correctly matched?

(a) 1 & 2 only
(b) 2 & 3 only
(c) All of the above
(d) None of the Above

Correct Answer – (c) All of the above

  • The Harmattan is a dry and dusty wind which blows from the Sahara over West and Central Africa from November to March.
  • The Ghibli is a hot, dry and dusty desert wind which blows in Libya throughout the year.
  • Chinook is a  warm and dry wind that blows in the eastern slopes of the Rocky Mountains in North America, mainly in the winter season.

6. Consider the following local winds and the location in which they blow:

1. Abrolhos → Brazil
2. Loo → India
3. Foehn → North Italy

Which of the above are correctly matched?

(a) 1 & 2 only
(b) 2 & 3 only
(c) All of the above
(d) None of the Above

Correct Answer – (c) All of the above

  • Abroholos is a violent wind that blows in the south-eastern coast of Brazil mainly during May and August.
  • The Loo is a hot and dry summer wind which blows over the Indo-Gangetic Plain region of North India and Pakistan.
  • Foehn is a dry, warm, and fast wind which blows on the leeward side of the Alps mountain ranges. It blows in a rain shadow region and causes a significant rise in temperature. They are also called ‘Snow Eaters’ in North America.

7. Consider the following statements :

1. Anabatic Winds are downslope winds.
2. Katabatic winds are upslope winds.

Which of the above assertions is/are true?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None of the Above

Correct Answer – (d) None of the Above

  • Anabatic Winds:
    • These are upslope winds.
    • They blow up a mountain, driven by heating of the slope facing the sun through insolation.
    • They generally blow during the daytime in calm sunny weather.
  • Katabatic Winds:
    • Katabatic winds are downslope winds which are created when the mountain surface is colder than the surrounding air.
    • Cold mountain surface cools the wind which becomes denser and heavier and hence blows down the slope due to gravity.

8. Consider the following statements about Coriolis force:

1. It deflects the winds to the right direction in the Northern hemisphere.
2. It deflects the winds to the left direction in the southern hemisphere.

Which of the above assertions is/are true?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None of the Above

Correct Answer – (c) Both 1 and 2 

  • Coriolis force is caused by the earth’s rotation. 
  • It is responsible for deflecting winds towards the right in the northern hemisphere and towards the left in the southern hemisphere. 
  • The deflection of the wind is more when the wind velocity is high.

9. Consider the following statements about Trade winds:

1. They flow from subtropical high-pressure belts to equatorial low-pressure belts.
2. They flow only in the Northern hemisphere and do not exist in the southern hemisphere.

Which of the above assertions is/are true?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None of the Above

Correct Answer – (a) 1 only 

  • Trade winds are the permanent winds that flow from subtropical high-pressure belts to equatorial low-pressure belts.
  • They flow in both the Northern  and the Southern hemisphere.
  • These are known as Northeast trade winds in the northern Hemisphere and southeast trade winds in the southern Hemisphere.

10. Consider the following statements about Westerlies :

1.They flow from sub-tropical high pressure belts to sub-polar low pressure belts in both hemispheres.
2. They are known as Roaring forties and Furious fifties in the Northern hemisphere due to their high speed and sound.

Which of the above assertions is/are true?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None of the Above

Correct Answer – (a) 1 only 

  • Trade winds are the permanent winds that flow from subtropical high pressure belts to sub-polar low pressure belts in both hemispheres.
  • They are known as Roaring forties(flows between 40º – 50ºS latitudes), Furious fifties(flows at 50ºS latitude) and Shrieking sixties(at 60ºS latitudes) in the Southern hemisphere due to their high speed and sound.

11. Consider the following statements regarding the Polar winds :

1. They flow from polar high-pressure belts to subpolar low-pressure belts in both hemispheres.
2. They are responsible for causing blizzards.

Which of the above assertions is/are true?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None of the Above

Correct Answer – (c) Both 1 and 2 

  • Polar winds are the permanent winds that flow from polar high-pressure belts to subpolar low-pressure belts in both hemispheres.
  • They flow at high speeds.
  • Their speed is intensified during the winter season which causes blizzards.

Also Read in World Geography MCQs :

Environment and Ecology MCQs – 01 ( Ecosystem )

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Environment and Bio-diversity

Environment and Ecology MCQs – 01 ( Ecosystem )

Ecosystem MCQs with answers and explanations for all examinations.

Free Mock Tests

Build Your Basics

1. Which of the following are covered under the definition of environment ?

1. Man
2. Topography of the place
3. Man-made Goods
4. Natural Goods

Select the correct codes:

(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 2 and 4
(d) All of the above

Correct Answer –  (d) All of the above

  • The place, people and the object surrounding them(both man made and natural) are together called an environment. 
  • It is a combination of natural and human made factors. 
  • It includes both biotic and abiotic conditions existing in the area.

2. The term ‘ENVIRONMENT’ originated from which language?

(a) French
(b) German
(c) Sanskrit
(d) English

Correct Answer –  (a) French

  • The term ‘environment’ is derived from the French word ‘Environer’ meaning ‘Neighborhood’ or ‘Surroundings’. 
  • Environment plays an important role in the existence of life on earth.
  • Different living species are dependent on the environment for their food, air, water, and other requirements. Therefore, it is a responsibility of every individual to save and protect our environment.

3. Environment is made up of which among the following :

1. Atmosphere
2. Lithosphere
3. Hydrosphere
4. Living Organisms

Select the correct codes:

(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 2 and 4
(d) All of the above

Correct Answer –  (d) All of the above

  • The environment is made up of the atmosphere, lithosphere, hydrosphere and the living organisms.
  • Atmosphere – Thick layer of gasses surrounding the earth.
  • Lithosphere – Solid outermost layer of the earth.
  • Hydrosphere – Made up of all the water or water vapor existing in the environment.

4. Consider the following statements about ecosystem :

1. Living organisms are part of the ecosystem.
2. Non-living things are not part of any ecosystem.

Select the correct statements from the codes below:

(a) 2 Only
(b) 1 Only
(c) None of the above
(d) All of the above

Correct Answer –  (b) 1 Only

  • An ecosystem includes all the living and nonliving things present in the environment.
  • There are two major types of ecosystems which are as follows:
  • Natural ecosystem – These are created by nature. 
  • Examples of Natural ecosystems:
    • Deserts
    • Forests
    • Grasslands
    • Lakes
    • Mountains
    • Rivers
    • Oceans etc.
  • Artificial ecosystem – These are artificially created by man. 
  • Examples of Artificial ecosystem:
    • Aquarium
    • Crop fields
    • Gardens and parks 
    • Artificial ponds etc.

5. Consider the following statements about the components of ecosystem :

1. Algae is an abiotic component of the ecosystem.
2. Rivers are a biotic component of the ecosystem.

Select the correct statements from the codes below:

(a) 2 Only
(b) 1 Only
(c) None of the above
(d) All of the above

Correct Answer –  (c) None of the above

  • Biotic components of the ecosystem – Includes all living organisms.
  • Examples of Biotic components :
    • All types of animals and birds
    • Forests and Grasslands
    • Insects
    • Reptiles and mammals
    • Microorganisms like algae, bacteria, fungus, viruses etc.
  • Abiotic components of the ecosystem– Consists of all non-living components. 
  • Examples of Abiotic components:
    • Air 
    • Cloud
    • Landforms and mountains
    • Rivers and Lakes
    • Climate related components like temperature, humidity, water vapor
    • Sand and dust etc.

6. Consider the following statements about the components of ecosystem :

1. Autotrophs are part of the abiotic component of the ecosystem.
2. Sunlight is a biotic component of the ecosystem.

Select the correct statements from the codes below:

(a) 2 Only
(b) 1 Only
(c) None of the above
(d) All of the above

Correct Answer –  (c) None of the above

  • Biotic components refer to all living components in an ecosystem
  • Biotic components can be categorized into following :
    • Autotrophs – Plants
    • Heterotrophs – Consumers
    • Saprotrophs – Decomposers

7. Fungi and bacteria are categorized as :

(a) Autotrophs
(b) Heterotrophs
(c) None of the above
(d) Saprotrophs

Correct Answer –  (d) Saprotrophs

  • Fungi and bacteria are categorized as Saprotrophs.
  • They thrive on the dead and decaying organic matter.  
  • Decomposers are an essential part of the ecosystem as they help in recycling nutrients which can be reused by plants.

8. Herbivores are categorized as :

(a) Autotrophs
(b) Heterotrophs
(c) None of the above
(d) Saprotrophs

Correct Answer –  (b) Heterotrophs

  • Plants are categorized as producers or autotrophs as they can produce their own food through the process of photosynthesis. 
  • Consumers or heterotrophs depend on other organisms for food.
  • Consumers are further classified into following categories:
    • Primary consumers or Herbivores – Rely on producers for food.
    • Secondary consumers –  Rely on primary consumers for food. They can either be carnivores or omnivores(like men).
    • Tertiary consumers – Rely on secondary consumers for food.  They can either be carnivores or omnivores(like men).

9. The base of the ecological pyramid is occupied by ?

(a) Autotrophs
(b) Heterotrophs
(c) None of the above
(d) Saprotrophs

Correct Answer –  (a) Autotrophs

  • An ecological pyramid is the graphical representation of the number, energy and biomass of the successive trophic levels of an ecosystem.
  • The base of the ecological pyramid is occupied by the producers or autotrophs, followed by primary and secondary consumers. 
  • The tertiary consumers hold the apex of the pyramid .

10. Which among the following is not a function of the ecosystem ?

(a) Nutrient cycling
(b) Energy flow
(c) Decomposition
(d) Rainfall

Correct Answer –  (d) Rainfall

  • Functions of the ecosystem:
  • Nutrient cycling –  Nutrients are consumed, converted and recycled back.
  • Energy flow – Energy flows from one trophic level to another as the energy captured from the sun by producers flows to consumers and then from consumers to decomposers and finally back to the environment which can be utilized again by the producers.
  • Production – Production of biomass by producers
  • Decomposition – Decomposition of biomass by Saprotrophs.
  • Rainfall as water is an abiotic component of an ecosystem. However rainfall is not caused by the ecosystem itself.

11. Which among the following is not part of 5 Levels of Ecology ?

(a) Organism
(b) Community
(c) Country
(d) Biosphere

Correct Answer –  (c) Country 

  • There are five Levels Ecology which are as following :
    • Level 1 – Organism
    • Level 2 – Population
    • Level 3 – Community
    • Level 4 – Ecosystem
    • Level 5 – Biosphere

12. Consider the following statements about the components of ecosystem :

1. In a food chain, flow of energy is linear.
2. In a food web, flow of energy is non-linear.

Select the correct statements from the codes below:

(a) 2 Only
(b) 1 Only
(c) None of the above
(d) All of the above

Correct Answer –  (d) All of the above

  • In a  food chain, flow of energy is linear and energy flows from one trophic level to another in sequence.
  • In a food web, there are combinations of many different food chains hence  flow of energy may not be linear.

Also Read in Environment and Ecology MCQs :

World Geography MCQs – 02 (Interior of the Earth)

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World Geography MCQs – 02 (Interior of the Earth)

 Interior of Earth MCQs with answers and explanations for all examinations.

Free Mock Tests

Build Your Basics

1. Consider the following statements:

1. The uppermost layer over the earth surface is called the “crust” and it is the thinnest of all the layers.
2. The thickness of the ocean crust is more than the continental crust.

Which of the above statements is/are true?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer – (a) 1 only 

  • Layers of earthThe interior of the earth can be divided into 3 different layers:
    • Crust
    • Mantle 
    • Core
  • The uppermost layer over the earth’s surface is called the crust. It is the thinnest of all the layers. 
  • It is fragile and brittle.
  • It is about 35 kms on the continental masses and only 5 km on the ocean floors. 
  • Hence, The thickness of the continental crust is more than the ocean crust.

2. Consider the following statements:

1. The Mantle has a density higher than the Crust.
2. The asthenosphere is the lower portion of Mantle.

Which of the above statements is/are true?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer – (a) 1 only 

  • The portion of the interior below the crust is called the mantle.
  • The Mantle has a density higher than the crust.
  • The mantle extends up to a depth of 2,900 km.
  • The asthenosphere, which is the chief source of magma, forms the upper portion of Mantle.
  • The crust and the uppermost part of the mantle are called the Lithosphere.
  • The major constituents of the mantle are Silicon and Magnesium and hence it is often termed as SIMA.

3. Consider the following statements:

1. The core is made up of very light materials like Silica (Si) and Aluminium (Al).
2. The inner core is in the solid-state whereas the outer core is in the liquid state.

Which of the above statements is/are true?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer – (b) 2 only 

  • The portion of the interior beyond the mantle is known as Core.
  • The Core consists of two sub-layers:
    • The inner core
    • The outer core
  • The inner core is in the solid-state whereas the outer core is in the liquid state. 
  • The inner core stays solid because of the large pressure surrounding it.
  • Core is made up of very heavy materials like Nickel and Iron. Hence it is often called the “NIFE” layer.
  • The core is the densest layer of the earth with its density ranging between 9.5 -14.5 g/cm3.
  • It is to be noted that Silica (Si) and Aluminum (Al) are major constituents of the crust due to which it is often termed as SIAL.

4. Consider the following statements:

1. Transition zone between Mantle and Core is known as Gutenberg Discontinuity.
2. Transition zone between the Crust and Mantle is known as Mohorovicic Discontinuity.

Which of the above statements is/are true?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer – (c) Both 1 and 2 

  • Transition zone between the Crust and Mantle is known as Mohorovicic Discontinuity.
  • Transition zone between Mantle and Core is known as Gutenberg Discontinuity.

5. Consider the following statements:

1. Continental crust is mainly made from a rock called granite.
2. Oceanic crust is mainly made from a rock called basalt.

Which of the above statements is/are true?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer – (c) Both 1 and 2 

  • Continental crust is mainly made up of granite, sedimentary rocks and metamorphic rocks.
  • Oceanic crust is mainly made from a rock called basalt.

6. Consider the following statements:

1. The transition zone between the upper core and the lower core is called Lehmann Discontinuity.
2. The transition zone between the upper mantle and the lower mantle is known as Repetti Discontinuity.

Which of the above statements is/are true?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer – (c) Both 1 and 2 

  • The transition zone between the upper core and the lower core is called Lehmann Discontinuity.
  • The transition zone between the upper mantle and the lower mantle is known as Repetti Discontinuity.

7. Which among the following is not a source of Information about the interior of the earth ?

(a) Volcanic eruptions
(b) Meteors
(c) Seismic Waves
(d) Rivers

Correct Answer – (d) Rivers

  • Following are the main sources which provide Information about the interior of the earth: 
    • Volcanic eruptions
    • Rocks excavated in mining
    • Meteors
    • Seismic Waves
    • Gravity anomaly ( Change in gravity value according to the mass of material )

8. Consider the following statements:

1. Pressure increases from the surface towards the center of the earth.
2. Temperature decreases from the surface towards the center of the earth.

Which of the above statements is/are true?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer – (a) 1 only 

  • Pressure increases from the surface towards the center of the earth due to the large weight of the overlying materials and rocks.
  • Temperature decreases from the surface towards the center of the earth as evident from the molten lava erupted from the earth’s interior.
  • It is to be noted that the density also increases from the surface towards the center of the earth.

9. Consider the following statements:

1. Rocks formed when molten lava comes on the earth’s surface, cools down and becomes solid are called extrusive Igneous rocks.
2. Rocks formed when molten lava cools down deep inside the earth’s crust and becomes solid are called intrusive Igneous rocks.

Which of the above statements is/are true?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer – (c) Both 1 and 2 

  • Rocks formed when molten lava comes on the earth’s surface, cools down and becomes solid are called extrusive Igneous rocks.
  • Rocks formed when molten lava cools down deep inside the earth’s crust and becomes solid are called intrusive Igneous rocks.

10. Consider the following statements:

1. Extrusive igneous rocks are made up of large grains.
2. Intrusive igneous rocks have a very fine grained structure.

Which of the above statements is/are true?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer – (c) Both 1 and 2 

  • Extrusive igneous rocks have a very fine grained structure due to sudden cooling. 
  • Example – Basalt.
  • Intrusive igneous rocks are made up of large grains.
  • Example – Granite.

11. Consider the following statements about sedimentary rocks ?

1. These are formed by the deposition of various types of sediments in layers.
2. There is no possibility of finding fossils in these rocks.

Select the correct statements from the codes below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer – (a) 1 only

  • The earth’s crust is composed of different types of rocks. 
  • There are mainly three types of rocks:
  • Igneous Rocks:
    • Formed by the solidification of magma and lava. 
    • Example – Granite, Gabbro and Basalt etc.
  • Sedimentary Rocks: 
    • Formed as a result of deposition of fragments of rocks by wind, water, etc.
    • Example – Sandstone, Limestone, Shale etc.
    • These rocks may also contain fossils of plants, animals and other microorganisms that once lived on them.
  • Metamorphic Rocks: 
    • Formed from already-existing rocks that undergo recrystallization due to high temperature or pressure or both. 
    • Example –  Schist, Gneiss, Quartzite and Marble etc.

12. Consider the following statements about Igneous Rocks ?

1. Igneous rocks are primary rocks.
2. Igneous rocks can be changed into sedimentary rocks but not into metamorphic rocks.

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 

Correct Answer – (a) 1 only

  • Igneous rocks are primary rocks.
  • Sedimentary and metamorphic rocks are formed from these primary rocks.
  • Igneous rocks can be changed into metamorphic rocks. They can also be converted into Sedimentary rocks by the process of lithification.

Also Read in World Geography MCQs :

World Geography MCQs – 01 (Latitudes and Longitudes)

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World Geography MCQs – 01 (Latitudes and Longitudes)

Latitudes and Longitudes MCQs with answers and explanations for all examinations.

Free Mock Tests

Build Your Basics

1. Consider the following statements:

1. The equator represents the zero degree latitude.
2. The latitude of the equator divides earth into two unequal parts.

Which of the above statements is/are correct:
(a) 1 Only
(b) 2 Only
(c) None of the above
(d) All are Correct

Correct Answer – (a) 1 Only 

  • The latitude of the equator divides earth into two equal parts.
  • The northern half of the earth is known as the Northern Hemisphere and the southern half is known as the Southern Hemisphere.
  • All parallel circles from the equator up to the poles are called parallels of latitudes.
  • Latitudes are measured in degrees.

2. Consider the following statements:

1. Tropic of Cancer and Capricorn represent lines of latitudes.
2. The region of earth between them is called the Torrid Zone.

Which of the above statements is/are correct:

(a) 1 Only
(b) 2 Only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None

Correct Answer – (c) Both 1 and 2 

  • Besides the equator (0°), the North Pole (90°N) and the South Pole (90° S), there are four important parallels of latitudes as follows:
    • Tropic of Cancer (23½° N) in the Northern Hemisphere.
    • Tropic of Capricorn (23½° S) in the Southern Hemisphere.
    • Arctic Circle (66 1⁄2° N) in the Northern Hemisphere.r.
    • Antarctic Circle (66½° S) in the Southern Hemisphere.
  • The region of earth between the Tropic of Cancer and the Tropic of Capricorn is called the Torrid Zone.
  • In these areas, the mid-day sun shines exactly overhead at least once a year and hence these areas receive the maximum heat.

3. Consider the following statements:

1. The mid-day sun never shines overhead on any latitude beyond the Tropic of Cancer.
2. The areas lying between the Antarctic Circle and the South Pole in the Southern Hemisphere are called Temperate Zones.

Which of the above statements is/are correct:

(a) 1 Only
(b) 2 Only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None

Correct Answer – (a) 1 Only 

  • The mid-day sun never shines overhead on any latitude beyond the Tropic of Cancer and the Tropic of Capricorn. The angle of the sun’s rays goes on decreasing towards the poles.
  • The areas bounded by the Tropic of Cancer and the Arctic Circle in the Northern Hemisphere, and the Tropic of Capricorn and the Antarctic Circle in the Southern Hemisphere, have moderate temperatures and therefore, are called Temperate Zones.
  • The areas located between the Arctic Circle and the North Pole in the Northern Hemisphere and the Antarctic Circle and the South Pole in the Southern Hemisphere, are very cold and called Frigid Zones.

4. Prime Meridian is a line of longitude representing:

(a) Zero Degree Longitude.
(b) 180 Degree Longitude.
(c) 360 Degree Longitude.
(d) None of the Above

Correct Answer – (a) Zero Degree Longitude

  • Unlike parallels of latitude, all meridians are of equal length.
  • The meridian which passes through Greenwich, where the British Royal Observatory is located is called the Prime Meridian.
  • Its value is 0° longitude.
  • The Prime Meridian and 180° meridian divide the earth into two equal halves, the Eastern Hemisphere and the Western Hemisphere.

5. Consider the following statements:

1. When earth moves around its own axis, it is called Revolution.
2. When earth moves in its orbit, it is called Rotation.
3. Rotation results in change of seasons and Revolution results in Day and Nights on earth.

Which of the above statements is/are correct:

(a) 3 Only
(b) 1 and 2 Only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None of the above

Correct Answer – (d) None of the above

  • Rotation is the movement of the earth on its axis.
  • The movement of the earth around the sun in a fixed path(called orbit) is called Revolution.
  • The axis of the earth, which is an imaginary line, makes an angle of 66½° with its orbital plane. 
  • The earth receives light from the sun. Due to the spherical shape of the earth, only half of it gets light from the sun at a time. 
  • The portion facing the sun experiences day while the other half away from the sun experiences night.
  • Hence, Rotation results in Day and Nights on earth.
  • The rotation of earth around the sun in its orbit is called revolution. It takes 365¼ days (one year) to revolve around the sun. 
  • Seasons change due to the change in the position of the earth around the sun.

6. Equinox refers to:

(a) Lunar eclipse
(b) Solar eclipse.
(c) Both a and b
(d) Equal Day and Night on Earth

Correct Answer – (d) Equal Day and Night on Earth

  • On 21st March and September 23rd, direct rays of the sun fall on the equator. 
  • At this position, neither of the poles is tilted towards the sun; so, the whole earth experiences equal length of days and equal nights. 
  • This phenomenon is called an equinox.

7. Indian Standard Meridian is ?

(a) 77.5 Degree East Longitude
(b) 82.5 Degree East Longitude
(c) 82.5 Degree West Longitude
(d) 87.5 Degree East Longitude

Correct Answer – (b) 82.5 Degree East Longitude

  • In India, the longitude of 82½° E (82° 30′ E) is treated as the standard meridian. 
  • The local time at this meridian is taken as the standard time for the whole country. It is known as the Indian Standard Time (IST).

8. Which among the following is considered as the international date line ?

(a) 0 Degree East Longitude
(b) 180 Degree East Longitude
(c) 60 Degree West Longitude
(d) 82.5 Degree East Longitude

Correct Answer – (b) 180 Degree East Longitude

  • The international date line passes through the mid-Pacific Ocean and roughly follows a 180 degrees longitude on the Earth. 
  • It was established in 1884.
  • It is located directly opposite to the prime meridian — the 0 degrees longitude line in Greenwich, England.
  • It is to be noted that the International Date Line isn’t a fixed line but actually sort of follows the 180° longitude line, zigzagging in its way through a group of small islands, territories and nations.

9. Consider the following Statements regarding Heat Zones of the earth:

1. The area between the tropic of cancer and Tropic of Capricorn which receive the maximum heat is called frigid zone.
2. Areas located between the Arctic Circle and the North Pole in the Northern Hemisphere and the Antarctic Circle and the South Pole in the Southern Hemisphere are very cold and are called torrid zones.

Select the correct statements:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) All are correct
(d) None of the above

Correct Answer – (d) None of the above

  • The area between the tropic of cancer and Tropic of Capricorn which receive the maximum heat is called torrid zones. 
  • Areas lying between the Arctic Circle and the North Pole in the Northern Hemisphere and the Antarctic Circle and the South Pole in the Southern Hemisphere, are very cold and are called frigid zones.

10. Which is the only continent that lies in all 4 hemispheres:

(a) Asia
(b) Europe
(c) Africa
(d) North America

Correct Answer – (c) Africa

  • Africa is the only continent which lies in all 4 hemispheres due to the equator and Prime Meridian both passing through the continent.

11. Which of the following rivers crosses the equator twice ?

1. Nile
2. Congo
3. Amazon

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 3 only

Correct Answer – (b) 2 only 

  • Congo river also known as Zaire River is the only river in the world that crosses the equator twice.
  • Congo is the second longest river located in the African continent, after the Nile.

12. Latitude of a place generally and mostly affects which among the following ?

(a) Time
(b) Temperature
(c) Rainfall
(d) Topography

Correct Answer – (b) Temperature

  • Among given options, Latitude most prominently affects the temperature of a place. 
  • Latitude is the measurement of the distance of a location on the Earth from the equator. 
  • The further away from the equator a location resides, the less sunlight it receives and colder it is.

Also Read in World Geography MCQs :

Indian Polity MCQs – 24 (Union Public Service Commission)

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Indian Polity MCQs and Mock Tests

Indian Polity MCQs – 24 (Union Public Service Commission)

Union Public Service Commission MCQs with answers and explanations for preparation of UPSC, BPSC, UPPSC and other State PSC Examinations

Free Mock Tests

Build Your Basics

1. Who is the civil servant of highest rank in the Union Government ?

(a) Attorney General

(b) Cabinet Secretary

(c) Home Secretary

(d) Principal Secretary of the P.M.

Correct answer – (b) Cabinet Secretary

  • Cabinet Secretary is the highest civil servant of the Union Government. 
  • The Cabinet Secretary is the senior-most civil servant in the Government of India.

2. The Union Public Service Commission has been created ?

(a) Through an act of the parliament

(b) By the Constitution

(c) Through a cabinet resolution

(d) None of the above

Correct answer – (b) By the Constitution

  • The Union Public Service Commission is an independent constitutional body directly created by the Constitution.
  • It is responsible for the recruitment to the all-India services and Central services of group A and group B.
  • It also advises the government, when consulted, on promotion and disciplinary matters.

3. The provision for the Union Public Service Commission has been provided in which among the following parts of the constitution ?

(a) Part XIV

(b) Part XII

(c) Part XV

(d) Part XI

Correct answer – (a) Part XIV

  • Part XIV(Articles 315 to 323) of the Constitution provide elaborate provisions regarding the composition, appointment and removal of members along with the independence, powers and functions of the UPSC.

4. The chairman and other members of UPSC are appointed by who among the following ?

(a) President of India

(b) Prime Minister of India

(c) Elected by the people

(d) Chief Justice of India

Correct answer – (a)  President of India

  • The chairman and other members of UPSC are appointed by the President of India.
  • The Constitution also enables the President to determine the conditions of service of the chairman and other members of the Commission.
  • The strength and the composition of the Commission is also determined by the President.

5. What is the term of office of the chairman and members of the Union Public Service Commission?

(a) 6 years

(b) Up to 65 years of age

(c) 6 years or up to 65 years of age, whichever earlier

(d) Up to 60 years of age

Correct answer – (c) 6 years or up to 65 years of age, whichever earlier

  • The term of office of the chairman and members of the Union Public Service Commission is 6 years or up to 65 years of age, whichever earlier.

6. The chairman and members of the Union Public Service Commission can resign from his office by sending his resignation to which among the following ?

(a) President

(b) Prime Minister

(c) Parliament

(d) Chief justice of Supreme Court

Correct answer – (a) President

  • The chairman and members of the Union Public Service Commission can resign any time from his office by addressing his resignation to the President.
  • They can also be removed by the president before the expiry of their term according to the process mentioned in the Constitution.

7. Who among the following can only be removed from the office in like manner and on the like grounds as a Judge of the Supreme Court?

  1. Comptroller and Auditor-General of India
  2. Chief Election Commissioner
  3. Chairman, Union Public Service Commission

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

(a) 1 & 2 only

(b) All of the above

(c) None of the above

(d) 2 and 3 only

Correct answer – (a) 1 & 2 only

  • The Comptroller and Auditor-General of India and the Chief Election Commissioner can only be removed from the office in like manner and on the like grounds as a judge of the Supreme Court
  • Grounds of removal of chairman or any other member of UPSC:
    • If he is adjudged an insolvent (bankrupt)
    • If he is involved, during his term of office, in any paid employment outside the duties of his office.
    • If he is unfit to continue in office due to infirmity of mind or body.

8. Consider the following statements regarding the chairman of the Union Public Service Commission:

  1. He can be removed by the President also on the grounds of misbehavior.
  2. In this case, the President has to refer the matter to the Supreme Court for its advice.
  3. The advice given by the Supreme Court in this matter is binding on the President.

Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect ?

(a) Only 1 & 2

(b) Only 2 & 3

(c) Only 2

(d) None of the above

Correct answer – (d) None of the above

  • All the statements are correct.
  • The chairman  or any other member of UPSC can be removed by the President also on the grounds of misbehavior.
  •  In this case, the President has to refer the matter to the Supreme Court for its advice.
  • The advice given by the Supreme Court in this matter is binding on the President.

9. Consider the following statements :

A member of the Union Public Service Commission:

  1. Is appointed by the President of India.
  2. Is ineligible for re-appointment to that office.
  3. Holds office for a period of 6 years or till the age of 60 years, whichever is earlier.

Of the above statements :

(a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct

(b) 1 and 2 are correct

(c) 2 and 3 are correct

(d) All are correct

Correct answer – (b) 1 and 2 are correct

  • A member of the Union Public Service Commission holds office for a period of 6 years or till the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier.
  • A member of the Union Public Service Commission is appointed by the President of India.
  • He is ineligible for re-appointment to that office or for further employment in the central or a state Government. However, he is eligible for appointment as the chairman of UPSC or a State Public Service Commission (SPSC).

10. Consider the following statements regarding the Union Public Service Commission:

  1. The salaries and allowances of the chairman and members of the UPSC are charged upon the Consolidated Fund of India.
  2. They are voted on and approved by the Parliament.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct answer – (a) Only 1

  • The salaries and allowances of the chairman and members of the UPSC are charged upon the Consolidated Fund of India.
  • They are not subject to the vote or approval of Parliament.

11. Consider the following statements regarding the Union Public Service Commission:

  1. The jurisdiction of UPSC can be extended by an act made by the Parliament.
  2. The President has power to exclude certain posts, services and matters from the purview of the UPSC.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct answer – (c) Both 1 and 2

  • Both the statements are correct.
  • The jurisdiction of UPSC can be extended by an act made by the Parliament.
  • The Parliament by making a law can assign the personnel system of any authority or public institution within the jurisdiction of the UPSC.
  • The president has power to exclude certain posts, services and matters from the purview of the UPSC by making a regulation.
  • Such regulations should be laid before each House of Parliament and the Parliament has the authority to amend or repeal them.

12. Consider the following statements regarding the Union Public Service Commission:

  1. The recommendations made by it are binding on the union government.
  2. It presents annually, its report of performance to the president.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct answer – (b) Only 2

  • The recommendations made by the Union Public Service Commission are advisory in nature hence, not binding on the union government. However, the Union government is answerable to the Parliament for departing from the recommendation of the Commission.
  • The Union Public Service Commission presents annually its report of performance to the president. The President further places this report before both the Houses of Parliament.

Also Read in Indian Polity MCQs :

Indian Polity MCQs – 23 (Comptroller and Auditor General(CAG))

by
Indian Polity MCQs and Mock Tests

Indian Polity MCQs – 23 (Comptroller and Auditor General(CAG))

Comptroller and Auditor General(CAG) of India MCQs with answers and explanations for preparation of UPSC, BPSC, UPPSC and other State PSC Examinations

Free Mock Tests

Build Your Basics

1. The office of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India was created ?

(a) Through an act of the parliament

(b) By the Constitution

(c) Through a cabinet resolution

(d) None of the above

Correct answer – (b) By the Constitution

  • The office of the Comptroller and Auditor General was created by the Constitution of India.
  • He is considered as the guardian of the public purse.
  • He controls and audits the entire financial system of the country at both the Centre and the state levels.

2. Which among the following articles of the constitution provides for the  Comptroller and Auditor General of India ?

(a) Article 324

(b) Article 326

(c) Article 148

(d) Article 192

Correct answer – (c) Article 148

  • The Constitution of India under article 148 provides for an independent office of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India.
  • He is the head of the Indian Audit and Accounts Department.
  • His primary responsibility is to uphold the constitution of India and laws of Parliament related to the financial administration of the country.

3. The Comptroller and Auditor-General of India is appointed by who among the following ?

(a) President of India

(b) Prime Minister of India

(c) Elected by the people

(d) Chief Justice of India

Correct answer – (a)  President of India

  • The Comptroller and Auditor General of India appointed by the President of India.
  • He holds office for a period of six years or up to the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier.

4. Consider the following statements :

  1. The Comptroller and Auditor-General of India has no control over the audit of expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of India.
  2. The Comptroller and Auditor-General of India audits all expenditure from the Contingency Fund of India and the Public Account of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct answer – (b) Only 2

  • The Comptroller and Auditor-General of India audits the accounts related to all expenditure from the consolidated fund of India.
  • He audits all expenditure from the Contingency Fund of India and the Public Account of India.
  • He audits all the profit and loss accounts, balance sheets maintained by any department of the Central Government and state governments.

5. The Comptroller and Auditor-General of India can be removed by who among the following ?

(a) President of India

(b) Prime Minister of India

(c) Elected by the people

(d) Chief Justice of India

Correct answer – (a)  President of India

  • The Comptroller and Auditor-General of India can be removed by the president on the same grounds and in the same manner as a judge of the Supreme Court. 
  • He can only be removed by the President when a resolution is passed to that effect by both the Houses of Parliament with special majority.
  • Grounds of removal:
    • Proved misbehavior
    • Incapacity.

6. Consider the following statements regarding the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India:

  1. The administrative expenses of the office of the CAG including all salaries, allowances are charged upon the Consolidated Fund of India.
  2. They are voted on and approved by the Parliament.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct answer – (a) Only 1

  • The administrative expenses of the office of the CAG including all salaries, allowances are charged upon the Consolidated Fund of India.
  • The expenses are not subject to the vote or approval of Parliament.

7. Consider the following statements regarding the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India:

  1. He holds office till the pleasure of the president.
  2. After retirement, he can hold any office only under the central government and not under any state government.
  3. His salary is determined by the Parliament.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) Only 1 & 2

(b) Only 2 & 3

(c) Only 3

(d) None of the above

Correct answer – (c) Only 3

  • The office of Comptroller and Auditor-General of India has been created by the Constitution of India and can be removed only as per the procedure mentioned in the constitution.
  • He does not hold his office only during the pleasure of the President.
  • After retirement, he can not hold any office under the central or state governments.
  • His salary and other service conditions are determined by the Parliament which is equal to that of a judge of the Supreme Court.

8. Consider the following statements regarding the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India:

  1. He can audit the expenditure from Consolidated Fund of India
  2. He can not audit the expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of any State
  3. He can audit the expenditure from the Contingency Fund of India
  4. He can audit the expenditure from the Public Account of India

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) Only 1, 2 & 3

(b) Only 1, 3 & 4

(c) All of the above

(d) None of the above

Correct answer – (b) Only 1, 3 & 4

  • The Comptroller and Auditor-General of India can audit the expenditure from:
    • Consolidated Fund of India Consolidated Fund of any State
    • Consolidated fund of each union territory having a Legislative Assembly
    • Contingency Fund of India, Contingency fund of each state
    • Public Account of India and Public Account of each state

9. What is the term of office of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India?

(a) 6 years

(b) Up to 65 years of age

(c) 6 years or up to 65 years of age, whichever earlier

(d) Up to 60 years of age

Correct answer – (c) 6 years or up to 65 years of age, whichever earlier

  • The Comptroller and Auditor General of India holds office for a period of six years or up to the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier.

10. Who among the following is called the Guardian of public purse?

(a) President

(b) Comptroller and Auditor-General

(c) Parliament

(d) Chief justice of Supreme Court

Correct answer – (b) Comptroller and Auditor-General

  • The Comptroller and Auditor-General of India is called as the Guardian of public purse.
  • Due to his importance in India’s financial administration, he was called the ‘Most important Officer’ under the Constitution of India by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar.

11. The Comptroller and Auditor-General of India can resign from his office by sending his resignation to which among the following ?

(a) President

(b) Prime Minister

(c) Parliament

(d) Chief justice of Supreme Court

Correct answer – (a) President

  • The Comptroller and Auditor-General of India can resign any time from his office by addressing his resignation to the President.

12. Consider the following statements regarding the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India:

  1. He submits his audit reports relating to the accounts of the Central government to the President who in turn, places them before both the Houses of Parliament.
  2. He submits his audit reports relating to the accounts of the state government to the Chief minister of the respective state, who in turn, places them before both the Houses of Parliament.
  3. He acts as a guide, friend and philosopher of the Public Accounts Committee of the Parliament.

Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect ?

(a) Only 1 & 2

(b) Only 2 & 3

(c) Only 2

(d) None of the above

Correct answer – (c) Only 2

  • Under Article 151, CAG submits his audit reports relating to the accounts of the Central government to the President who in turn, places them before both the Houses of Parliament.
  • He also submits his audit reports relating to the accounts of the state government to the governor of the respective state, who in turn, places them before both the Houses of Parliament.
  • He acts as a guide, friend and philosopher of the Public Accounts Committee of the Parliament.

Also Read in Indian Polity MCQs :

Indian Polity MCQs – 22 (Election Commission of India)

by
Indian Polity MCQs and Mock Tests

Indian Polity MCQs – 22 (Election Commission of India)

Election Commission of India MCQs with answers and explanations for preparation of UPSC, BPSC, UPPSC and other State PSC Examinations

Free Mock Tests

Build Your Basics

1. Which of the following is not a feature of the election system in India?

(a) Universal Adult Franchise

(b) Secret Voting

(c) Reservation of seats in the legislature for the members of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes

(d) Communal Electorate

Correct answer –  (d) Communal Electorate

  • Universal Adult Franchise, Secret Voting, Reservation of seats in the legislature for the members of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes are the salient features of the election system in India.
  • The Communal Electorate system in India was first introduced by the Indian Councils Act of 1909 also known as the Minto- Morley reforms. However, this system is not part of the Indian constitution and election system.

2. Elections in India for Parliament and State Legislatures are conducted by which among the following ?

(a) President

(b) State Election Commission

(c) Governor

(d) Election Commission of India

Correct answer – (d) Election Commission of India

  • As per the Indian constitution, The Election Commission of India, established as a permanent Constitutional Body, has been entrusted by the Constitution with the superintendence, direction, and control of the entire electoral process for Parliament, State Legislatures, and the offices of the President and Vice-President of India.
  • Election Commission of India does not deal with the elections to the Municipalities and Panchayats in the states. For this purpose, a separate provision for the State Election Commission has been provided by the Constitution of India.

3. Which of the following is not a constitutional authority?

(a) Election Commission of India

(b) State Finance Commission

(c) Zila Panchayat

(d) Niti Aayog

Correct answer – (d) Niti Ayog

  • Provisions for Election Commission of India, State Finance Commission,  Panchayats have been provided by the constitution.
  • Niti Ayog is not a constitutional authority.

4. Members of the Election Commission of India are appointed by which among the following ?

(a) President of India

(b) Prime Minister of India

(c) Elected by the people

(d) Chief Justice of India

Correct answer – (a)  President of India

  • According to Article 324 of the Constitution of India, President appoints Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners.

5. Which article of the Indian constitution says that there will be an election commission in India?

(a)  Article 124

(b)  Article 342

(c)  Article 324

(d)  Article 115

Correct answer – (c)  Article 324

  • The Constitution of India provides for an election commission under article 324. 
  • Article 124 deals with the Establishment and constitution of the Supreme Court of India.
  • Article 115 of the Indian Constitution provides for supplementary, additional, or excess grants.  This demand for additional grants is made when the expenditure has been incurred after a financial year has expired.
  • Article 342 provides for specification of tribes or tribal communities as Scheduled Tribes. The President may  specify the tribes or tribal communities or parts of or groups within tribes or tribal communities as Scheduled Tribes however, Parliament may by law include in or exclude from the list of Scheduled Tribes any tribe or tribal community or part of or group within any tribe or tribal community

6. While deciding any question relating the disqualification of a member of Parliament, the President shall obtain the opinion of 

(a) Chief Justice of India

(b) Election Commission of India

(c) Attorney General of India

(d) Speaker of the Lok Sabha

Correct answer – (b) Election Commission of India

  • Article 102 of Indian Constitution defines the Disqualification of Members in Parliament. 
  • If any question arises as to whether a Member of Parliament has become subject to any of the disqualifications mentioned in Article 102, the question shall be referred to the President for his decision, which shall be final.
  • Before giving any decision on any such question, the president should obtain the opinion of the Election Commission of India and act according to its opinion.

7. Currently, there are how many members in the Election Commission?

(a) 1

(b) 2

(c) 3

(d) 4

Correct answer – (c) 3

  • From its inception in 1950 and till 15 October 1989, the election commission of India was a one-member body with only the Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) as its only member.
  • In 1989, two more election commissioners were appointed by the president. However, the two posts of election commissioners were eliminated in January 1990 and the Election Commission was reverted to the previous position.
  • However, in October 1993, the president again appointed two more election commissioners. 
  • Since then, the Election Commission functions as a multi-member body consisting of 3 commissioners( Chief Election Commissioner and two Election Commissioners).

8. What is the tenure of office for the Chief Election Commissioner?

(a) 5 years or 65 years, whichever is earlier

(b) 6 years or 60 years, whichever is earlier

(c) 6 years or 65 years, whichever is earlier

(d) 5 years or 60 years, whichever is earlier

Correct answer – (c) 6 years or 65 years, whichever is earlier

  •  The Election Commission of India consists of the Chief Election Commissioner and two Election Commissioners.
  • The President appoints CEC and Election Commissioners.
  • They have a fixed tenure of six years, or up to the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier.
  • They enjoy the same status and receive salary and perks similar to Judges of the Supreme Court (SC) of India.

9. Delimitation of constituencies and determination of constituencies reserved for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes are done by ?

(a) Election Commission

(b) Delimitation Commission

(c) Planning Commission

(d) Election Commission with the assistance of Delimitation Commission

Correct answer – (d) Election Commission with the assistance of Delimitation Commission

  • Delimitation commission of India is a Commission established by Government of India under the provisions of the Delimitation Commission Act. 
  • The main task of the commission is to redraw the boundaries of the various assembly and Lok Sabha constituencies based on a recent census. 
  • The representation from each state is not changed during this exercise. However, the number of SC and ST seats in a state can change in accordance with the census.

10. The Election Commissioner can be removed by the ?

(a) Chief Election Commissioner

(b) Prime Minister

(c) President on the recommendation of the chief Election Commissioner

(d) Chief Justice of India

Correct answer – (c) President on the recommendation of the Chief Election Commissioner

  • The Chief Election Commissioner can be removed from office only through a process of removal similar to that of a Supreme Court judge by Parliament.
  • Other Election Commissioners can be removed by the President of India on the recommendation of the Chief Election Commissioner

11. Who recognizes the political parties in India?

(a) President of India

(b) Election Commission of India

(c) Ministry of Law and Justice

(d) Speaker of the Lok Sabha

Correct answer – (b) Election Commission of India

  • Election Commission of India grants recognition to the political parties and allocates them election symbols
  • It also register political parties and grant them the status of national or state parties

12. The power to decide the date of an election to a State Legislative Assembly rests with which among the following ?

(a) President of India

(b) Chief Minister and his/her Cabinet

(c) Election Commission of India

(d) Parliament

Correct answer – (c) Election Commission of India

Following are the main functions/powers of the Election Commission of India:

  • Supervising the machinery of elections throughout the country to ensure the conduct of free and fair elections.
  • To decide the date of an election for Lok sabha and state legislative assemblies
  • Preparing and periodically revising electoral rolls and registering all eligible voters
  • Granting recognition to the political parties and allocating them election symbols
  • Settle the disputes concerning the granting of recognition to political parties and allocating election symbols to the parties
  • Determining the code of conduct to be followed by the political parties and candidates during elections
  • Advising the President on matters related to the disqualification of MPs.
  • Advising the Governor on matters  related to the disqualification of MLAs.
  • Registering political parties and granting them the status of national or state parties

Also Read in Indian Polity MCQs :

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