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Modern History MCQs – 6 (Revolt of 1857)

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Battle of Plassey

Modern History MCQs – 6 (Revolt of 1857)

Revolt of 1857 MCQs with answers and explanations for preparation of UPSC, State PSCs and Other Examinations

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1. Who among the following was the Governor General of India during the revolt of 1857 ?

(a) Lord Canning
(b) Lord Cornwallis
(c) Lord Wellesley
(d) Lord Dalhousie

Correct Answer – (a) Lord Canning

  • Lord Canning  was the Governor General of India during the revolt of 1857.
  • Lord Canning took office as Governor General of India under the East India Company in 1856.

2. Revolt of 1857 was called the ‘First War of Independence’ by who among the following ?

(a) Vinayak Damodar Savarkar
(b) Mahatma Gandhi
(c) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(d) None of the Above

Correct Answer – (a) Vinayak Damodar Savarkar

  • The revolt of 1857 was first organized resistance against the British East India Company.
  • The revolt is known by several names.
  • It was called the ‘First War of Independence’ by Vinayak Damodar Savarkar.
  • The British Historians called it ‘the Sepoy Mutiny’.

3. The revolt of 1857 was mainly started by ?

(a) The Sepoys
(b) The Zamindars
(c) The Peasants
(d)The Middle class

Correct Answer – (a) The Sepoys

  • The revolt of 1857, a widespread but unsuccessful rebellion against British rule in India Began in Meerut by Indian troops (sepoys) in the service of the British East India Company.
  • Later it spread to Delhi, Agra, Kanpur, and Lucknow.
  • It broke out over the incident of greased cartridges.
  • A rumor spread that the cartridges of the new Enfield rifles were greased with the fat of cows and pigs which hurt the sentiments of both Hindus and Muslims.

4. The revolt of 1857 began in which among the following places ?

(a) Bombay
(b) Meerut
(c) Plassey
(d) Delhi

Correct Answer – (b) Meerut

  • The revolt of 1857 also called the Sepoy Mutiny began on 10 May 1857 at Meerut by the sepoys of the British East India Company’s army.

5. Consider the following places and the leaders of the Revolt :

1. Lucknow → Begum Hazrat Mahal
2. Kanpur → Nana Saheb
3. Jhansi → Rani Lakshmi Bai

Which of the above are correctly matched ?

(a) 1 & 2 only
(b) 2 & 3 only
(c) All of the above
(d) None of the above

Correct Answer – (c) All of the above

  • In Lucknow, the revolt was led by Begum Hazrat Mahal.
  • In Kanpur,  the revolt was led by Nana Saheb. He was the adopted son of Peshwa Baji Rao II. He was helped by his able commander Tantia Tope.
  • In Jhansi,  the revolt was led by Rani Lakshmi Bai as the British refused to accept the claim of her adopted son to the throne of Jhansi.

6. Consider the following places and the leaders of the Revolt :

1. Bareilly → Kunwar Singh
2. Bihar→ Khan Bahadur Khan
3. Delhi → Bahadur Shah II

Which of the above are NOT correctly matched ?

(a) 1 & 2 only
(b) 2 & 3 only
(c) All of the above
(d) None of the above

Correct Answer -(a) 1 & 2 only

  • Bahadur Shah II, the last Mughal emperor led the revolt in Delhi.
  • In Bihar, the revolt was led by Kunwar Singh who belonged to a royal house of Jagdispur, Bihar.
  • In Bareilly, the revolt was led by  Khan Bahadur Khan.

7. Consider the following statements regarding the revolt of 1857 ?

1. The causes of the revolt were mainly economic.
2. The Doctrine of lapse was one of the reasons for the revolt.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 & 2
(d) None of the above

Correct Answer – (b) 2 only

  • The causes of the revolt were not only economic but social and political also.

Political causes:

    • Doctrine of lapse which did not allow local rulers to adopt their heirs.

Economic Causes:

    • Collapse of local industries like textiles, metalwork, glass, and paper.
    • Indian handicrafts lost domestic and foreign markets
    • Exploitative land revenue policies of British and high burden of taxes on the cultivators

Social Causes : 

    • Britishers treated Indians with contempt.
    • Interference in religion by the British.

Administrative causes:

    • Discrimination in the army as Indian sepoys were given inferior salaries and the military ranks compared to their British counterparts.

8. Consider the following statements regarding the reasons for the failure of the revolt of 1857 :

1. Educated Indians did not support it.
2. Soldiers from Punjab and south India did not support the revolt.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 & 2
(d) None of the above

Correct Answer – (c) Both 1 & 2

  • Reasons for the failure of the revolt of 1857:
    • Lack of a unified ideology among the revolutionaries.
    • Educated Indians did not support it as they believed that the British would lead the country towards modernization.
    • No pan India unity among the soldiers as the soldiers from Punjab and south India did not support the revolt.
    • Military Superiority of the British.
    • Local nature of the revolt as eastern and southern India mostly remained unaffected.

9. Which among the following were the consequences of the great uprising of 1857 :

1. East India Company’s rule ended in India.
2. India now came under the direct rule of the British Crown.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 & 2
(d) None of the above

Correct Answer – (c) Both 1 & 2

Results of the revolt of 1857:

  • East India Company’s rule ended in India.
  • India now came under the direct rule of the British Crown.
  • The office of the Governor General was replaced by that of the Viceroy.
  • The rights of Indian rulers were recognized.
  • The Doctrine of Lapse was abolished and the right to adopt sons as legal heirs by local rulers was accepted.
  • The ratio of British officers to Indian soldiers increased in the army.

10. Sir Hugh Rose described who as ‘the best and bravest military leader of the rebel’ ?

(a) Begum Hazrat Mahal
(b) Rani Laxmi Bai
(c) Kuwar Singh
(d) Bahadur Shah Zafar

Correct Answer – (b) Rani Laxmi Bai

  • During the revolt of 1857, Hugh Rose led the British forces against Rani Lakshmibai and Tantia tope and defeated them. 
  • Later in his report, Hugh Rose commented that Rani Lakshmibai was the best, bravest and most dangerous of all Indian leaders.

11. Who among the following was the Mughal emperor of Delhi during the revolt of 1857 ?

(a) Begum Hazrat Mahal
(b) Shah Alam II
(c) Jahandar Shah
(d) Bahadur Shah Zafar

Correct Answer – (d) Bahadur Shah Zafar

  • Bahadur Shah Zafar was a nominal and last mughal emperor of Delhi.
  • He was the mughal emperor of Delhi during the revolt of 1857.
  • Following his involvement in the Indian Rebellion of 1857, the British exiled him to Rangoon after convicting him on conspiracy charges.

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Physical Geography Mock Test

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Physical Geography Mock Test

Physical Geography Free Mock Test for UPSC Prelims, State PSC and Other Examinations.

This free test series has been created for the benefit of aspirants so that they can score good marks in the examination. This test contains basic as well as advanced questions of Physical Geography.

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Physical Geography Mock Test

 

Syllabus - Physical Geography 

Number Of Questions - 25

Time Duration - 30 Minutes

1 / 25

1. Consider the following statements regarding the formation of planets:

1. Planetesimals are small bodies which come together to form planets.
2. Planets are formed during star formation.

Select the correct statement(s) using the codes given below :

2 / 25

2. Consider the following statements regarding solar system:

1. Jovian planets have not experienced removal of gasses due to low intensity of solar wind.
2. All the planets were formed in the same period around 4.6 billion years ago.

Select the correct statement(s) using the codes given below.

3 / 25

3. Consider the following statements regarding the structure of the earth.

1. Asthenosphere along with the crust forms the lithosphere.
2. The outer core is in solid state while the inner core is in liquid state.

Select the incorrect statement(s) using the codes given below:

4 / 25

4. Consider the following statements:

1. Moho discontinuity separates the mantle from the core.
2. The transition zone between the upper mantle and the lower mantle is known as Repetti Discontinuity.

Which of the above statements is/are true?

5 / 25

5. Which among the following is not true about the waves generated during the earthquake ?

6 / 25

6. Which among the following sets of pairs are correctly matched ?

1. Shield Volcanoes – Largest volcanoes on Earth.
2. Caldera – Most explosive volcanoes on the earth.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

7 / 25

7. Which among the following are the evidence in support of the Continental Drift Theory ?

8 / 25

8. Which of the following factors are NOT responsible for soil formation ?

1. Parent material
2. Topography
3. Climate
4. Biological activity
5. Time

Select the correct statement(s) using the codes given below :

9 / 25

9. Consider the following statements:

1. In the youth or early stage a river has very narrow floodplains.
2. The erosion caused by the river in its youth stage is known as lateral erosion.

Select the correct statement(s) using the codes given below :

10 / 25

10. Which among the following are the factors affecting Ocean salinity ?

11 / 25

11. Consider the following statements about the concentration of water vapor in the atmosphere ?

1. The concentration increases with the altitude.
2. As we move towards the poles the concentration decreases.

Select the correct statement(s) using the codes given below :

12 / 25

12. Which among the following ocean currents flow in the Atlantic Ocean?

  1. Labrador Current
  2. Agulhas Current
  3. Benguela Current
  4. Humboldt Current

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

13 / 25

13. Consider the following features of a rock.

1. They are formed at some depth in the earth's crust.
2. They have large, easily recognizable crystals.
3. They have formed by the solidification of magma slowly.

Which among the following rocks satisfies these features ?

14 / 25

14. Panama Canal connects the Pacific Ocean to which among the following water bodies ?

15 / 25

15. Which of the following is/are NOT Greenhouse Gases ?

1. Nitrous oxide
2. Ozone
3. Sulfur dioxide

Select the correct answer from the following codes :

16 / 25

16. Depletion of the ozone layer causes which of the following harmful impacts ?

1. Cataract in eyes leading to blindness
2. Reduced productivity of forests
3. Lung Cancer

Select the correct answer from the following codes :

17 / 25

17. Consider the following statements :

1. Wheat is sown in around mid-October/November and harvested in March.
2. Wheat grows well in cool and moist climate and ripens in a warm and dry climate.

Which of the above statement (s) is/are correct about climatic conditions for Growing Wheat ?

18 / 25

18. Consider the following statement (s) related to the laterite soil:

1. It is formed due to intense leaching away of siliceous matter.
2. These soils are poor in organic matter.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

19 / 25

19. Consider the following statement (s) regarding deciduous forests :

1. It is found in regions where rainfall is between 70 and 200 cm.
2. Forests are divided into moist and dry deciduous on the basis of the availability of water.

Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct ?

20 / 25

20. Why does the sun seem red during the dawn and dusk ?

1. Only red coloured is scattered in the range of the visible lights.
2. Shorter wavelengths like blue and green are scattered and only red is left to be seen.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

21 / 25

21. Consider the following statements:

1. Albedo is a measure of how much light that hits a surface is reflected without being absorbed.
2. Melting of polar ice increases the albedo of the earth.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

22 / 25

22. Katabatic wind is ?

23 / 25

23. The pattern of planetary winds is affected by which among the following ?

1. Earth’s rotation.
2. Distribution of continents and oceans.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

24 / 25

24. Which of the following is/are favorable condition (s) for formation of Tropical Cyclones ?

1. Large sea surface with temperature between 10 - 15° C.
2. Presence of the Coriolis force.
3. A pre-existing weak low-pressure area.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

25 / 25

25. Which of the following conditions are associated with a cold front ?

1. The cold air mass is advancing and undercutting the warm air mass.
2. The warm air mass is advancing and overriding the cold air mass.
3. Rapid ascent of warm moist air at the front causes rapid cooling and condensation.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below :

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Indian Polity Mock Test

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Indian Polity Mock Test

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Indian Polity Mock Test

 

Syllabus - Indian Polity and Constitution

Number Of Questions - 50

Time Duration - 1 Hour

 

1 / 50

1. The ‘Instrument of Instructions’ which have been incorporated in the Constitution of India were contained in the : 

(a) Government of India Act of 1935

(b) Indian Independence Act of 1947

(c) Government of India Act 1919

(d) Nehru Report of 1928

2 / 50

2. The Government of India Act, 1935 provided for the establishment of which among the following ?

1. Establishment of a Federal Court
2. Establishment of the Reserve Bank of India

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

3 / 50

3. The Government of India Act, 1935 provided for which of the following ?

  1. Abolition of dyarchy in the provinces
  2. Adoption of dyarchy at the Centre.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

4 / 50

4. Consider the following statements regarding the Government of India Act of 1858 :

1. This act was enacted after the Revolt of 1857.
2. It was also known as The Act for the Good Government of India.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

5 / 50

5. Which among the following pairs is/are NOT correctly matched ?

1. Indian Councils Act of 1909 – Legalized communalism
2. Government of India Act 1919 – Introduction of direct elections in India

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

6 / 50

6. Which among the following set of pairs are matched:

1. Government of India Act of 1935 – Established of All India Federation
2. Government of India Act of 1858 – Ended the controversial ‘Doctrine of Lapse’

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

7 / 50

7. Which among the following acts first introduced the Portfolio system in India ?

8 / 50

8. Consider the following statements regarding the Indian Independence Act of 1947 :

1. It designated the Viceroy of India as nominal head of Country.
2. The function of Secretary of State for India was transferred to the Governor General of India.

Select the correct statement(s) using the codes given below.

9 / 50

9. Consider the following Committees of the Constituent Assembly and their heads :

1. Union Constitution Committee – JawaharLal Nehru
2. Steering Committee – Dr. Rajendra Prasad

Select the correct matches using the codes given below.

10 / 50

10. Consider the following Committees of the Constituent Assembly and their heads : 

  1. The Provincial Constitution Committee – JawaharLal Nehru
  2. The Drafting Committee –  Dr. B.R. Ambedkar

Select the correct matches using the codes given below.

11 / 50

11. Consider the following statements regarding Zero Hour of the parliament :

      1. The First hour of every Parliamentary sitting is called Zero Hour.
      2. It is not mentioned in the rules of procedure.
      3. It is an Indian innovation in the field of Parliamentary procedures.

Select the correct statement(s) using the codes given below.

12 / 50

12. Which among the following are among the reasons for the large size of the Constitution of India ?

      1. Diversity and Vastness of the country
      2. Single constitution for both the center and states
     3. Influence of the Government of India Act of 1935
     4. Lack of legal luminaries in the Constituent Assembly

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

13 / 50

13. Which among the following are the features of the Parliamentary form of Government in India ?

1. Majority party rule
2. Collective Responsibility of the executive to the legislature
3. Dissolution of the upper house

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

14 / 50

14. Which of the following sets of pairs are correctly matched ?

1. Irish Constitution → Directive Principles of State Policy
2. US constitution → Methods of election of the President

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

15 / 50

15. Which of the following sets of source and feature pairs are correctly matched ?

  1. Weimar Constitution →  Suspension of Fundamental Rights during Emergency
  2. Australian Constitution → Concurrent List

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

16 / 50

16.Which of the following sets of source and feature pairs are correctly matched ?

1. British Constitution → Parliamentary government
2. US Constitution → Rule of Law

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

17 / 50

17. Consider the following statements : 

  1. The Constitution of India derives its authority from the people of India.
  2. The objectives of the Indian constitution include Justice, liberty, equality and fraternity among the people of India.

Select the correct answer by using the codes given below:

18 / 50

18. Consider the following statements regarding the Preamble: 

  1. Preamble declares India to be a sovereign, socialist, secular and democratic republic.
  2. The preamble was adopted on 26th January 1950.

Select the correct answer by using the codes given below:

19 / 50

19. Consider the following statements regarding amendability of the Preamble.

1. The Preamble has been amended only once which included three new words – socialist, secular and integrity.
2. Amendment to the Preamble does not constitute an amendment under Article 368.

Select the correct statement(s) using the codes given below.

20 / 50

20. Which of the following changes will require a Constitutional Amendment Act ?

1. Cessation of Indian territories to a foreign nation
2. Resolution of boundary dispute with a country
3. Creation of a new state
4. Alteration of areas of an existing state

Select the correct answer by using the code given below:

21 / 50

21. With reference to parliamentary bills related to reorganization of states, which of the following are correct ?

1. The bill seeking reorganization of states needs the prior recommendation of the President before being introduced in the Parliament.
2. Prior to recommending the bill, it is optional for the President to refer the bill to the state legislature concerned.

Select the correct statement(s) using the codes given below.

22 / 50

22. Consider the following statements:

1. A naturalized citizen is not eligible for the office of the President of India.
2. Friendly aliens are the subjects of those countries who have cordial relations with India.

Select the correct answer by using the code given below

23 / 50

23. Consider the following statements with reference to the Citizenship :

1. The constitution deals with the problem of acquisition or loss of citizenship.
2. It empowers the Parliament to enact a law to provide for such matters and any other matter relating to citizenship.

Select the correct statement(s) using the codes given below.

24 / 50

24. According to Indian Citizenship Act, 1955, In which of the following ways can Indian citizenship be acquired ?

1. By Registration
2. By Descent
3. By Naturalization

Select the correct answer using the code below:

25 / 50

25. Which among the following statements are true regarding the Fundamental rights provided by the Indian constitution ?

1. They are not absolute but qualified as states can impose reasonable restrictions on them.
2. All fundamental rights get suspended during the operation of National emergency.

Select the correct answer using the code below :

26 / 50

26. Which among the following is also called the ‘Magna Carta’ of India ?

27 / 50

27. Which among the following statements are true regarding the Right to property ?

1. Originally the constitution also included Right to property as a fundamental right.
2. It was deleted from the list of Fundamental Rights by the 42th Amendment Act, 1976.

Select the correct answer using the code below :

28 / 50

28. Consider the following statements regarding the fundamental rights :

1. They are available only against the arbitrary action of the state.
2. When any of the rights are violated by the private individuals, there are no constitutional remedies in the constitution.

29 / 50

29.Which of the following features of ‘Rule of Law’ are applicable to the Indian system ?

1. Absence of any arbitrary power
2. Primacy of rights of individual
3. Equality before law

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30 / 50

30. Which of the following Fundamental Rights are protected against only State action and not against actions taken by private individuals ?

1. Right to freedom of speech and expression
2. Right to shops, public restaurants, hotels and places of public entertainment without any restriction only on the basis of religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth

Select the correct answers using the codes given below

31 / 50

31.Consider the following statements regarding the Indian Constitution :

1. The Constitution protects individuals against untouchability.
2. The Constitution defines untouchability in detail.

Select the correct answer by using the code given below

32 / 50

32. Consider the following statements regarding Article 32 of the Constitution :

1. It provides the right to Constitutional remedies.
1. This Right can be suspended during a national emergency.

Select the correct statement(s) using the codes given below.

33 / 50

33. Consider the following statements :

1. Only the Supreme Court of India has the power to issue writs for the enforcement of any of the Fundamental Rights.
2. In this case, the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court is exclusive.

Select the correct statement(s) using the codes given below.

34 / 50

34. With reference to the exceptions to the application of Fundamental Rights under certain circumstances, consider the following statements :

1. They are applicable without any restrictions to the members of Armed forces and Paramilitary forces.
2. Their application can be restricted while a martial law is in force.

Select the correct statement(s) using the code given below

35 / 50

35. Which of the following form a part of the Directive Principles of State Policy ?

1. To prohibit the consumption of intoxicating drinks and drugs which are injurious to health.
2. To promote cottage industries on an individual or co-operation basis in rural areas and urban areas.

Select the correct answer by using the code given below:

36 / 50

36. Consider the following statements regarding Fundamental Duties inscribed in the Constitution of India.

1. They are inspired by the constitution of erstwhile USSR.
2. They extend to both Indian citizens as well as aliens present in the country.
3. They are non-justiciable in nature.

Select the correct statement(s) using the codes given below.

37 / 50

37. Which among the following provisions of the Constitution requires a special majority in the parliament along with consent of half the States?

1. Election of the President and its manner
2. Any of the Lists in the Seventh Schedule
3. Power of Parliament to amend the Constitution (Article 368 itself)

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

38 / 50

38. With reference to the Inter State Council, consider the following statements :

1. Article 263 empowers the President to establish such a council for coordination between Centre and States.
2. It is a permanent body.

Select the correct statement(s) using the code given below:

39 / 50

39. Consider the following statements regarding the President’s rule in states :

1. The Presidential proclamation imposing President’s rule is subject to judicial review.
2. The Court can restore the dissolved state legislative assembly if it holds the proclamation to be unconstitutional.

Select the correct answer by using the code given below:

40 / 50

40. With reference to the Financial Emergency in India, consider the following statements :

1. The Parliament is empowered to proclaim a financial emergency when the financial stability or credit of India or any part of its territory is threatened.
2. During Financial Emergency, the President may issue directions for the reduction of salaries and allowances of the judges of the Supreme Court.

Select correct statement(s) using the codes given below.

41 / 50

41. Consider the following statements regarding the impeachment of the President of India :

1. The President can be impeached on the ground of ‘Violation of the Constitution’.
2. Impeachment charges can be initiated in the House of People(Lok Sabha) only.

Select the correct statement(s) by using the code given below:

42 / 50

42. With reference to the Office of Vice-President of India, consider the following statements:

1. He acts as the ex-officio Chairman of Rajya Sabha.
2. While acting as President or discharging the functions of President, he does not perform the duties of Rajya Sabha.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

43 / 50

43. Consider the following statements :

1. The term Cabinet does not find mention in the Constitution of India.
2. The Prime Minister can induct any number of members in the Council of Ministers.

Select the correct statement(s) using the codes given below.

44 / 50

44. Consider the following statements :

1. No money can be drawn from the Consolidated fund of India without the passing of the Appropriation Bill in the Parliament.
2. The Charged expenditure of Consolidated fund of India is not subject to voting in the Parliament.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

45 / 50

45. Which among the following is/are the source of powers and responsibilities of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha ?

1. Constitution of India
2. The Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business of Lok Sabha
3. Parliamentary Conventions

Select the correct answer by using the code given below :

46 / 50

46. Which among the following provisions ensure the independence of the judiciary in India ?

1. Fixed Service Conditions
2. Power to punish for its contempt
3. Its jurisdiction cannot be curtailed

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

47 / 50

47. The voting age of elections to the Lok Sabha and State Assemblies was reduced from 21 years to 18 years by which among the following acts :

48 / 50

48. Consider the following statements :

1. The President of India summons and Prorogues both the Houses of the Parliament.
2. The Presiding Officer of the concerned House adjourns and adjourns sine die.

Select the correct statement(s) using the codes given below:

49 / 50

49. Consider the following statements about Rajya Sabha :

1. The maximum strength of Rajya Sabha is fixed at 250.
2. All members are indirectly elected from the states and union territories.

Select the correct statement(s) using the codes given below:

50 / 50

50. In case of absence of the Speaker of Lok Sabha, who among the following presides over the joint sitting of the two Houses ?

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Modern History MCQs – 5 (Governor Generals of India)

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Battle of Plassey

Modern History MCQs – 5 (Governor Generals of India)

Governor Generals of India MCQs with answers and explanations for all examinations.

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1. Which among the following acts changed the position of Governor of Bengal to the Governor-General of Bengal ?

(a) Regulating Act of 1773
(b) The Charter Act of 1833
(c) The Charter Act of 1813
(d) None of the Above

Correct Answer –  (a) Regulating Act of 1773

  • During British rule in India, The Governor-General was the head of the administration.
  • The Regulating Act of 1773 changed the position of Governor of Bengal to the Governor-General of Bengal.
  • The first Governor-General of Bengal was Warren Hastings.
  • The Regulating Act of 1773 was the first step of the British government to regulate the affairs of the East India Company.

2. Consider the following statements regarding Warren Hastings ?

1. He ended the Dual System put forth by Robert Clive.
2. He shifted the Treasury from Murshidabad to Calcutta.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 & 2
(d) None of the above

Correct Answer – (c) Both 1 & 2

  • When Warren Hastings assumed the administration of Bengal in 1772, he found the company’s financial position in worse condition and realized the immediate requirement for introducing the reforms.
  • He ended the Dual System put forth by Robert Clive and the responsibility of
  • collecting the revenue was put on the shoulders of the Company
  • He shifted the Treasury from Murshidabad to Calcutta. With this move, Calcutta became the capital of Bengal in 1772.
  • He abolished the system of ‘Dastaks’, or free passes and regulated the internal trade.

3. Which among the following Governor-General established Asiatic Society of Bengal ?

(a) Warren Hastings
(b) Lord Cornwallis
(c) Lord Wellesley
(d) None of the above

Correct Answer – (a) Warren Hastings

  • Warren Hastings supported the establishment of Asiatic Society in 1784 by Sir William Jones.

4. Which among the following Governor-General established the Permanent Settlement system in Bengal ?

(a) Warren Hastings
(b) Lord Cornwallis
(c) Lord Wellesley
(d) None of the above

Correct Answer – (b) Lord Cornwallis

  • Lord Cornwallis twice held the position of governor general. 
  • His first tenure lasted from 1786 to 1793.
  • Lord Cornwallis introduced a new land revenue system known as the Permanent Settlement of Bengal in 1793 with a view to stabilize land revenue of the company.
  • This system abolished periodic auction of zamindari rights and established permanent zamindari rights to collect land revenue from the tenants of the lands(farmers) and payment of a fixed amount of land revenue every year.
  • The Permanent Settlement fixed the revenue of the land on a 10 year basis.
  • This system was implemented in Bengal, Banaras, Bihar, Carnatic (North Karnataka) and Orissa.

5. The Third Anglo-Mysore war was fought during the tenure of which among the following Governor-General of Bengal ?

(a) Warren Hastings
(b) Lord Cornwallis
(c) Lord Wellesley
(d) None of the above

Correct Answer – (b) Lord Cornwallis

  • The Third Anglo-Mysore war(1790-92) was fought during the tenure of Lord Cornwallis.
  • With the help of Diplomacy with the Marathas, Coorg state and Nizams, Cornwallis was able to defeat Tipu in this war.
  • As a result, Treaty of Srirangapatnam which was signed in 1792 which resulted in Half of the territories of Tipu being confiscated by the British.

6. The Fourth Anglo Mysore war was fought during the tenure of which among the following Governor-General of Bengal ?

(a) Warren Hastings
(b) Lord Cornwallis
(c) Lord Wellesley
(d) None of the above

Correct Answer – (c) Lord Wellesley 

  • Lord Wellesley held the position of Governor General of Fort Williams from 1798 to 1805.
  • During his tenure, the Fourth and last Anglo-Mysore war was fought and Tipu was killed in this war.

7. The Subsidiary Alliance System was introduced by which among the following Governor-Generals of Bengal ?

(a) Warren Hastings
(b) Lord Cornwallis
(c) Lord Wellesley
(d) None of the above

Correct Answer – (c) Lord Wellesley 

  • The Subsidiary Alliance System was introduced by Lord Wellesley.
  • Under this system, a treaty would be signed between the company and the Indian native rulers who had to abide by following major terms:
    • Accept British forces in his territory
    • Accept a British Resident in his state
    • Not enter into any further alliance or war without permission from the British
    • Not employ any European other than British
  • In return, the East India Company would pledge to protect the state from external dangers and internal disorders.
  • First ruler to sign this treaty with Wellesley was Nizam of Hyderabad followed by Ruler of Mysore (1799) after the fall of Tipu.
  • Later, many other Indian rulers were brought under this treaty.

8. Which among the following was the first newspaper published in India ?

(a) Bengal Gazette
(b) The Calcutta Chronicle
(c) The Bombay Herald
(d) None of the above

Correct Answer – (a) Bengal Gazette

  • In 1780, James Augustus Hickey published the first newspaper in India titled “Bengal Gazette”.
  • The newspaper was primarily intended for the different European communities living in Calcutta.

9. Censorship of Press Act was introduced by which among the following Governor-Generals of Bengal ?

(a) Warren Hastings
(b) Lord Cornwallis
(c) Lord Wellesley
(d) None of the above

Correct Answer – (c) Lord Wellesley 

  • The Censorship of Press Act was introduced by Lord Wellesley in 1799 to bring all the newspapers under the Government scrutiny before their publication.

10. Censorship of the Press Act was abolished by which among the following Governor-Generals of Bengal ?

(a) Warren Hastings
(b) Lord Cornwallis
(c) Lord Wellesley
(d) Lord Hastings

Correct Answer – (d) Lord Hastings

  • Lord Hastings served as Governor General of India from 1813 to 1823.
  • During his tenure, the Gurkha War and Third Anglo Maratha war occurred.
  • He also abolished the Censorship of the Press Act introduced by Lord Wellesley.

11. Which among the following was the first vernacular newspaper published in India ?

(a) Sambad Kaumudi
(b) Samachar Darpan
(c) Neel Darpan
(d) None of the above

Correct Answer – (b) Samachar Darpan

  • ‘Samachar Darpan’ was the first vernacular newspaper published in India. It was started in 1818.
  • ‘Sambad Kaumudi’ started by Raja Rammohan Roy was published in 1821. This was a reformist publication that actively campaigned against the tradition of Sati.

12. The practice of Sati was formally abolished by which among the following Governor-Generals of Bengal ?

(a) Lord William Bentinck
(b) Lord Cornwallis
(c) Lord Wellesley
(d) Lord Hastings

Correct Answer – (a) Lord William Bentinck

  • The practice of Sati was formally abolished by Lord William Bentinck on 4 December 1829.
  • He also worked towards suppression of female Infanticide.
  • It is to be noted here that the practice of Sati was first banned in Goa in 1515 by the Portuguese.

13. Which among the following acts changed the position of Governor-General of Bengal to Governor-General of India ?

(a) Regulating Act of 1773
(b) The Charter Act of 1833
(c) The Charter Act of 1813
(d) None of the Above

Correct Answer –  (b) The Charter Act of 1833

  • The Charter Act of 1833 changed the position of Governor-General of Bengal to Governor-General of India.
  • Lord William Bentinck became the first Governor-General of British India.
  • This act ended the activities of the company as a commercial body and it was made a purely administrative body and legalized the British colonization of India.
  • Under this act, the first law commission was set up with Lord Macaulay as its Chairman.
  • This act also for the first time made provisions to allow Indians into administration.

14. The Doctrine of Lapse was introduced by which among the following Governor-Generals of India ?

(a) Warren Hastings
(b) Lord Cornwallis
(c) Lord Wellesley
(d) Lord Dalhousie

Correct Answer – (d) Lord Dalhousie

  • Lord Dalhousie served as Governor General of India from 1848 to 1856.
  • The Doctrine of Lapse was introduced by him.
  • The Doctrine of Lapse → In the absence of a natural heir, the sovereignty of Indian states was to lapse to the British and such rulers were not permitted to adopt a son to inherit their kingdoms.
  • The policy was first applied to Satara in 1848 then to the other states like Nagpur Jhansi, Sambalpur, Jaitpur, Bhagat, Udaipur etc.

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Modern History MCQs – 4 (Anglo Mysore Wars and Anglo Maratha Wars)

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Modern History MCQs – 4 (Anglo Mysore Wars and Anglo Maratha Wars)

Anglo Mysore Wars and Anglo Maratha Wars MCQs with answers and explanations for all Examinations.

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1. How many Anglo-Mysore Wars were fought between the British and the rulers of Mysore ?

(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5

Correct Answer –  (c) 4

  • The Anglo-Mysore Wars was a series of four wars fought in India between the British and the rulers of Mysore.
  • They were fought on below timelines:
    • First Anglo-Mysore War (1767-69)
    • Second Anglo-Mysore War (1780-84)
    • Third Anglo-Mysore War (1790-92)
    • Fourth Anglo-Mysore War (1799)

2. The Treaty of Madras was signed after which among the following wars ?

(a) First Anglo-Mysore War
(b) Second Anglo-Mysore War
(c) Third Anglo-Mysore War
(d) Fourth Anglo-Mysore War

Correct Answer –  (a) First Anglo-Mysore War

  • The first Anglo-Mysore War took place in 1767-69. 
  • Haider Ali emerged victorious against the British and at the end of the War a defensive treaty also known as the Treaty of Madras Was concluded between Haider Ali and the British.
  • As a result of the treaty, all the conquered territories were restored to each other.

3. The Second Anglo-Mysore War ended with which among the following treaties ?

(a) Treaty of Mangalore
(b) Treaty of Madras
(c) Treaty of Seringapatam
(d) None of the Above

Correct Answer –  (a) Treaty of Mangalore

  • The Marathas attacked Mysore in 1771. But the British refused to honor the Treaty of Madras and did not give support to Hyder Ali.
  • This angered Hyder Ali and when English attacked Mahe, a French possession under Hyder Ali’s dominion, he declared war on the English in 1780.
  • The Second Mysore War came to an end by the Treaty of Mangalore in 1783. 
  • Accordingly, all conquests were mutually restored and the prisoners on both sides were liberated.

4.  Hyder Ali died during which among the following wars ?

(a) First Anglo-Mysore War
(b) Second Anglo-Mysore War
(c) Third Anglo-Mysore War
(d) Fourth Anglo-Mysore War

Correct Answer –  (b) Second Anglo-Mysore War

  • In December 1782, Haider died of cancer at the age of sixty and his son Tipu Sultan assumed power.
  • Tipu Sultan was a great warrior also called the Tiger of Mysore.
  • He organized his army on the European model.
  • He involved French officers to train his soldiers.
  • He gave his support to the French soldiers at Seringapatam in setting up a Jacobin Club in 1797.
  • He also planted the Tree of Liberty at Seringapatam.

5. The Third Anglo-Mysore War concluded with which among the following treaties ?

(a) Treaty of Mangalore
(b) Treaty of Madras
(c) Treaty of Seringapatam
(d) None of the Above

Correct Answer –  (c) Treaty of Seringapatam

  • The Third Anglo-Mysore War began when Tipu attacked Travancore, an ally of the English East India Company.
  • In this war, Tipu fought bravely but the odds were against him and he had to lose almost half of his territory.
  • The Third Anglo-Mysore War concluded with the Treaty of Seringapatam, 1792.

6. Tipu Sultan died during which of the following wars ?

(a) 1st Anglo-Mysore War
(b) 2nd Anglo-Mysore War
(c) 3rd Anglo-Mysore War
(d) 4th Anglo-Mysore War

Correct Answer –  (d) 4th Anglo-Mysore War

  • Tipu Sultan died in the Fourth Anglo-Mysore War. 
  • The war began on April 17, 1799 and ended on May 4, 1799 with the fall of Seringapatam.
  • A boy from the earlier Hindu royal family of Mysore was chosen as the maharaja and also the subsidiary alliance system was imposed on him by the British.

7. How many Anglo-Maratha Wars were fought between the British and the Maratha rulers ?

(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5

Correct Answer –  (b) 3

  • The Anglo-Maratha Wars was a series of three wars fought in India between the British and different Maratha rulers.
  • They were fought on below timelines:
    • First Anglo-Maratha War (1775-82)
    • Second Anglo-Maratha War (1803-05)
    • Third Anglo-Maratha War (1817-19)

8. The Treaty of Salbai ended which among the following wars ?

(a) 1st Anglo-Maratha War
(b) 2nd Anglo-Maratha War
(c) 3rd Anglo-Maratha War
(d) None of the above

Correct Answer –  (a) 1st Anglo-Maratha War

  • The Treaty of Salbai was signed in May 1782 between the Peshwa and the English which concluded the first Anglo-Maratha War.
  • As per the treaty, Salsette and Bassein were given to the British. 
  • Raghunath Rao was pensioned off and Madhav Rao II was accepted as the Peshwa.

9. The Treaty of Bassein was signed between which among the following ?

(a) Bajirao II and British
(b) Jasvantrao Holkar and British
(c) Sindhia and British
(d) None of the Above

Correct Answer –  (a) Bajirao II and British

  • During the Second Anglo-Maratha war Jasvantrao Holkar attacked the armies of Sindhia and Bajirao II.
  • In response, Bajirao II signed the Treaty of Bassein with the British in which large parts of Maratha territories were ceded to the British.

10. Maratha chiefs and states came under the subsidiary alliance after which among the following wars ?

(a) 1st Anglo-Maratha War
(b) 2nd Anglo-Maratha War
(c) 3rd Anglo-Maratha War
(d) None of the above

Correct Answer –  (c) 3rd Anglo-Maratha War

  • To protect the sovereignty of the Maratha empire, Bajirao II with other Maratha leaders attacked the British however he was defeated easily by the British army.
  • The subsidiary alliance was accepted by Maratha chiefs after this defeat.
  • The Peshwaship of Marathas was also abolished.
  • The strong Maratha Empire, which had risen after the Mughal decline was defeated and disintegrated due to internal divisions and weakening leadership.
  • The British East India Company capitalized on these vulnerabilities and exploited Maratha disunity to further strengthen their dominance in India.

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World Geography MCQs – 08 (Plate Tectonics and Earthquakes)

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World Geography MCQs – 08 (Plate Tectonics and Earthquakes)

Plate Tectonics and Earthquakes MCQs with answers and explanations for all examinations.

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1. The continental drift was given by which among the following ?

(a) Alfred Wegener
(b) Charles Darwin
(c) Inge Lehmann
(d) None of the above

Correct Answer – (a) Alfred Wegener

  • The theory of continental drift was propounded by Alfred Wegener in 1912.
  • He was a German geologist.
  • Inge Lehmann was a Danish seismologist who discovered the core of the Earth and was a leading authority on the theory of existence of the upper mantle.

2. As per the continental drift theory, ‘Pangaea’ was ?

(a) A Supercontinent
(b) An Active volcano
(c) A Superocean
(d) None of the above

Correct Answer – (a) A Supercontinent

  • As per the continental drift theory of Alfred Wegener, present continents were once joined in a supercontinent called ‘Pangaea’.
  • He also proposed that the Pangaea later separated into the Gondwanaland and Angaraland and the space between them was filled with water that was called Tethys Sea.
  • Later the Gondwanaland separated into different parts to form the Indian subcontinent (peninsula) , Madagaskar, Australia and Antarctica.
  • Similarly Angaraland separated into different parts to form the North America South and Africa.

3. Consider the following statements about Plate Tectonics ?

1. Lithosphere is made up of many large and several smaller sections called tectonic plates.
2. When tectonic plates move or collide, it causes Earthquakes.

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) None of the Above
(d) All of the above

Correct Answer – (d) All of the above

  • Earth’s lithosphere is made up of many large and several smaller sections called tectonic plates.
  • There are six major lithospheric plates : 
    • Pacific plate
    • American plate
    • Eurasian plate,
    • African plate
    • Austral-Indian plate
    • Antarctic plate.
  • Earthquakes and volcanoes are caused when plates separate, collide, or slide past one another.

4. Consider the following statements about Plate boundaries :

1. In Convergent Plate Boundaries, plates move away from each other
2. In Transform Plate Boundaries, plates slide past one another

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) None of the Above
(d) All of the above

Correct Answer – (b) 2 only

  • Tectonics Plates while floating on liquid asthenosphere interact with each other and form different types of boundaries.
  • There are three types of plate boundaries:
    • Convergent Boundaries → Where plates move toward each other
    • Divergent Boundaries → Where plates move away from each other
    • Transform Boundaries → Where plates slide past one another

5. Consider the following statements :

1. When an oceanic plate collides with a continental plate, the continental plate is always subducted.
2. When two oceanic plates collide, the denser of the two plates is subducted.

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) None of the Above
(d) All of the above

Correct Answer – (b) 2 only

  • When an oceanic plate collides with a continental plate, the oceanic plate is always subducted as the oceanic plate is denser than the continental plate.
  • This leads to the formation of a volcano or a volcanic island in the sea.
  • When two oceanic plates collide, the denser of the two plates is subducted. This leads to the formation of chains of volcanoes called continental volcanic arcs.

6. Consider the following statements :

1. When two continental plates collide, folded mountains are formed.
2. Collision of two continental plates is responsible for formation of the Himalayas.

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) None of the Above
(d) All of the above

Correct Answer – (d) All of the above

  • Both the statements are correct.
  • When two continental plates collide, the crust at both the sides is too light and buoyant to be subducted, hence neither plate is subducted in the continental-continent collision.
  • In this case, folded mountains are formed.
  •  Collision of two continental plates is responsible for formation of the Himalayas.

7. The Red Sea and the Gulf of Aden are formed due to which among the following ?

(a) Continental-Continental Divergence
(b) Continental-Continental Convergence
(c) Continental-Oceanic Divergence
(d) Oceanic-Oceanic Divergence

Correct Answer – (a) Continental-Continental Divergence

  • The divergent plate boundaries on the continents lead to the formation of Continental Rift Zones.
  • When Continental Rift Zones are formed, the earth is stretched and a rift is created. 
  • When such a rift gets filled with water, it leads to the development of water bodies like the Red Sea and the Gulf of Aden.

8. Consider the following statements about Transform Plate Boundaries :

1. These are the places where two plates slide past each other.
2. Earthquakes are most common but Volcanoes rarely develop at transform plate boundaries.

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) None of the Above
(d) All of the above

Correct Answer – (d) All of the above

  • Transform Plate Boundaries are the places where two plates slide past each other.
  • No subduction occurs at such boundaries.
  • Earthquakes are most common but Volcanoes rarely develop at these boundaries.

9. Which of the following statements is/are true ?

1. During the earthquake, the place in the earth’s crust where the movement starts is called the epicenter.
2. Greatest damage is usually caused closest to the epicenter.

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer – (b) 2 only 

  • When the Lithospheric plates (also known as tectonic plates) move, the surface of the earth vibrates. 
  • The vibrations can travel all around the earth in the form of P-waves and S-waves. 
  • These vibrations are called earthquakes. 
  • The place in the crust where the movement starts is called the focus. 
  • The place on the surface directly above the focus is called the epicenter. 
  • Vibrations travel outwards from the epicenter as waves. 
  • Greatest damage is usually caused closest to the epicenter and the strength of the earthquake decreases away from the center.

10. Consider the following statements :

1. The point where earthquakes are generated is called focus.
2. Focus is below the surface of the earth.

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) None of the Above
(d) All of the above

Correct Answer – (d) All of the above

  • Both the statements are correct.
  • The point where earthquakes are generated is called focus or hypocenter.
  • Epicenter is the point on the Earth’s surface that is directly above the focus.
  • It is the place on the earth’s surface where earthquake waves reach first.

11. The magnitude of the earthquake is measured in which among the following ?

(a) Richter
(b) Pascal
(c) Parsec
(d) None of the above

Correct Answer – (a) Richter

  • The magnitude of the earthquake is measured on the Richter scale.
  • It is to be noted that the Richter scale has no upper limit theoretically, however, the earthquakes of magnitude 10 or larger cannot happen. 
  • The strongest earthquake ever recorded was a magnitude 9.5 which occurred in 1960 near Valdivia, Chile.
  • Pascal is used to measure pressure.
  • Parsec is a unit of length used to measure the distance between the astronomical objects outside of our solar system.It is the  largest practical unit of length. One parsec is equal to 3.26 light years.

12. The lines on a map that connect points of equal intensity earthquakes are called ?

(a) Iso-seismals
(b) Isobars
(c) Isotherms
(d) None of the above

Correct Answer – (a) Iso-seismals 

  • Isoseismals are the lines on a map that connect points of equal intensity earthquakes.
  • Isobars are the lines on a map that connect points of equal atmospheric pressure at a given time.
  • Isotherms are the lines on a map that connect points of equal temperature at a given time.

13. Consider the following statements about Seismic Waves :

1. They are divided into two major categories called Body Waves and Surface Waves.
2. Surface Waves are further divided into P-waves and S-waves.

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) None of the Above
(d) All of the above

Correct Answer – (a) 1 only

  • Seismic Waves are divided into two major categories called Body Waves and Surface Waves.
  • Body Waves:
    • Originate at focus and travel through the Earth’s interior and arrive before surface waves. 
    • They are further divided into P-waves and S-waves.
  • Surface Waves:
    • They move along the surface of the earth. 
    • Their speed is slower than body waves.
    • It is to be noted that shallow earthquakes(where focus is near the surface) produce stronger surface waves whereas deeper earthquakes (where focus is deep in the earth’s interior) produce weaker surface waves.

14. Consider the following statements about Seismic Waves :

1. The Primary waves or P-waves vibrate parallel to the direction of wave movement.
2. Secondary waves vibrate perpendicular to the direction of wave movement.

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) None of the Above
(d) All of the above

Correct Answer – (d) All of the above

  • The Primary waves or P-waves are the longitudinal waves which vibrate parallel to the direction of wave movement.
  • They can travel through solid, liquid or gas however their speed is fastest in denser solid materials.
  • Secondary waves or S-waves also known as transverse waves vibrate perpendicular to the direction of wave movement.
  • They can only travel through solids.

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World Geography MCQs – 07 (Ocean Currents)

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World Geography MCQs – 07 (Ocean Currents)

Ocean Currents MCQs with answers and explanations for all examinations.

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1. Consider the following statements regarding ocean currents :

1. They move in a definite direction.
2. They can be classified as warm currents and cold currents.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) None of the above
(d) All of the above

Correct Answer – (d) All of the above

  • Ocean currents are the massive movements of oceanic water in a definite direction.
  • On the basis of temperature, Ocean currents are divided into warm currents and cold currents.
  • The ocean currents that flow from the Equator towards the poles are warmer than the surrounding water and hence they are called warm currents.
  • The ocean currents that flow from the polar areas towards the equator are cooler compared to the surrounding water and hence they are called cold currents.

2. Consider the following statements regarding ocean currents :

1. They are slow surface movements of ocean water
2. Salinity of the ocean water affects them.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) None of the above
(d) All of the above

Correct Answer – (b) 2 only 

  • Oceanic salinity affects the density of ocean water and density variation causes the movement of ocean currents.
  • Ocean currents are swift surface movements of ocean water.

3. Consider the following statements regarding Oceanic Currents?

1. Surface currents are primarily driven by winds whereas deep currents are primarily driven by density difference.
2. Surface currents are swift whereas deep currents are relatively slower.

Which among the above observations is / are correct?

(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 & 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer – (c) Both 1 & 2

  • Ocean currents are also classified as the Surface Currents and Deep Currents. 
  • Surface currents affect surface water and these are mainly driven by winds.
  • The Deep currents affect deep water and these are mainly driven by density differences in the ocean water. 
  • The deep currents are much larger but slower than surface currents.

4. Consider the following statements regarding cold ocean currents :

1. They are usually found on the west coast of the continents in the low and middle latitudes only in the northern hemisphere.
2. The warm currents are usually observed on the east coast of the continents in the low and middle latitudes only in the southern hemisphere.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) None of the above
(d) All of the above

Correct Answer – (c) None of the above

  • The cold currents are usually found on the west coast of the continents in the low and middle latitudes in both the hemispheres.
  • The warm currents are usually observed on the east coast of the continents in the low and middle latitudes in both the hemispheres.

5. Which among the following is NOT a factor that influences the direction of the ocean currents?

(a) Wind
(b) Coriolis force
(c) Insolation
(d) Rainfall

Correct Answer – (d) Rainfall

  • Following are the major factors that influences the ocean currents:
    • Wind
    • Coriolis force
    • Insolation
    • Gravity
    • Pressure Gradient
    • Tide
  • Due to the coriolis force, the warm currents from low latitudes tend to move to the right in the northern hemisphere and to their left in the southern hemisphere.

6. Consider the following statements regarding Gulf Stream :

1. It originates in the Gulf of Mexico.
2. It moves in a south-easterly direction.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) None of the above
(d) All of the above

Correct Answer – (a) 1 only 

  • The Gulf Stream is a warm Atlantic ocean current that originates in the Gulf of Mexico.
  • It flows through the Straits of Florida along the eastern coastline of the United States and then moves toward Northwest Europe as the North Atlantic Current.

7. Which among the following is NOT a cold ocean current ?

(a) Benguela Current
(b) Falkland Current
(c) Labrador Current
(d) Brazil Current

Correct Answer – (d) Brazilian Current

  • The Canary current is a cold current that flows along the western coast of North Africa.
  • The Labrador Current is also a cold current in the North Atlantic Ocean.
  • The Falkland Current is a cold water current that flows northward along the Atlantic coast of Patagonia.
  • The Brazil Current is a warm water current that flows south along the Brazilian south coast.

8. Which among the following ocean currents is not found in the Atlantic Ocean ?

(a) Humboldt current
(b) Falkland Current
(c) Labrador Current
(d) Brazil Current

Correct Answer – (a) Humboldt current

  • Major ocean currents of Atlantic Ocean:
    • Falkland Current(Cold)
    • Labrador Current(Cold)
    • Brazil Current(Warm)
    • Benguela Current(Cold)
    • Canary Current(Cold)
    • Gulf Stream(Warm)
  • Humboldt current is found in the pacific ocean.
  • It is a cold current that flows along the western coast of South America from south to north.
  • It is also called Peru current.

9. Consider the following statements :

1. Kuroshio is a cold ocean current.
2. Oyashio is a warm ocean current.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) None of the above
(d) All of the above

Correct Answer – (c) None of the above

  • Kuroshio is a warm ocean current. It runs from Taiwan to the Bering Strait in the pacific ocean.
  • Oyashio is a cold ocean current. It flows through the Bering Strait in southerly direction and transports the cold water of the Arctic Sea into the Pacific Ocean.
  • It is also known as Kurile current.

10. Which of the following areas is/are considered to be the best fishing zone in the world ?

(a) The areas where cold currents flow.
(b) The areas where hot currents flow.
(c) The areas where the warm and cold currents meet.
(d) The area of the sea that is around the equator.

Correct Answer – (c) The areas where the warm and cold currents meet. 

  • The areas where the warm and cold currents meet provide the best fishing grounds of the world. 
  • Seas around Japan and the eastern coast of North America are such examples. The areas where a warm and cold current meet also experience foggy weather making it difficult for navigation.

11. Consider the following statements :

1. Indian Ocean has the most consistent system of Ocean Currents
2. The Agulhas Current is an Indian Ocean current.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) None of the above
(d) All of the above

Correct Answer – (b) 2 only 

  • The currents in the Indian Ocean are largely affected by the monsoon winds.
  • They are not consistent as they change their flow direction due to north-east and south-west monsoon winds.
  • The Agulhas Current is an Indian Ocean current. It flows south along the east coast of Africa.

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World Geography MCQs – 06 (Oceans)

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World Geography MCQs – 06 (Oceans)

Oceans MCQs with answers and explanations for all examinations.

Chapterwise MCQs

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Free Test Series

CivilsCracker Explains

1. The main cause of the origin of tides in the ocean are :

(a) Gravitational force of the sun
(b) Monsoon Climate
(c) Due to the force of gravity of both the sun and the moon
(d) Sea water streams

Correct Answer – (c) Due to the force of gravity of both the sun and the moon

  • The rhythmic rise and fall of ocean water twice in a day is called a tide. 
  • The strong gravitational pull exerted by the sun and the moon on the earth’s surface causes the tides. 
  • As the sun is far away from the earth as compared to the moon, the gravitational pull of the sun is lesser over the Earth than the moon. This is the reason that the moon mainly determines the magnitude of the tide. 
  • The water of the earth closer to the moon gets pulled under the influence of moon’s gravitational force and causes high tide whereas the side opposite from the moon experiences low tide.

2. Which of the following benefits are related to high tide?

1. High tides help in navigation.
2. The high tides also help in fishing.
3. The rise and fall of water due to tides is used to generate electricity at some places.

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) All of the above

Correct Answer – (d) All of the above

  • High tides help in navigation as they raise the water level close to the shores which helps the ships to arrive at the harbor easily. 
  • The high tides also help in fishing. More fish come closer to the shore during the high tide. This enables fishermans to get more catches. 
  • The rise and fall of water due to tides is being used to generate electricity in some places by harnessing this tidal energy.

3. Consider the following statements:

1. Spring tides are formed when the sun and the moon are in line with each other.
2. Neap tides are formed when the sun and the moon are at the right angle to each other.

Which of the above statements are true?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None of the Above

Correct Answer – (c) Both 1 and 2 

  • Both the statements are true.
  • Spring tides:
    • These are formed when the sun and the moon are in line with each other and pull the ocean water in the same direction.
    • This causes higher high tides and lowers low tides.
    • It can occur twice in a lunar month.
  • Neap tides:
    • These are formed when the sun and the moon are at the right angle to each other.
    • As the gravitational pull of the moon is canceled out by the gravitational pull of the sun to some extent, it causes lower high tides and higher low tides.

4. Consider the following statements regarding the Pacific Ring of Fire :

1. It is characterized by active volcanoes.
2. There are frequent earthquakes in this area.

Which of the above statements are true?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None of the Above

Correct Answer – (c) Both 1 and 2 

  • The Pacific Ring of Fire is a Circum-Pacific Belt along the Pacific Ocean characterized by active volcanoes and frequent earthquakes.
  • Its length is approximately 40,000 kilometers which consists of boundaries between several tectonic plates.
  • Mount Fuji, which is Japan’s most famous mountain and an active volcano, is part of Ring of Fire.
  • About more than 75 percent of earth’s volcanoes and 90 percent of earthquakes exist here.

5. The Mariana Trench is part of which among the following ocean :

(a) Pacific Ocean
(b) Atlantic Ocean
(c) Indian Ocean
(d) None of the Above

Correct Answer – (a) Pacific Ocean

  • The oceanic trenches are long and narrow depressions of the ocean floor.
  • The Mariana Trench is an oceanic trench situated in the western Pacific Ocean.
  • It is the deepest oceanic trench on Earth.
  • Its deepest point is called Challenger Deep.
  • Tonga Trench is located in the South Pacific Ocean and is the second deepest trench. Its deepest point is called Horizon Deep.

6. Consider the following statements regarding the Pacific Ring of Fire :

1. Planktons are found in continental shelves.
2. The continental shelf off the eastern coast of India is much wider than that of the western coast.

Which of the above statements are true?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None of the Above

Correct Answer – (c) Both 1 and 2

  • The Ocean floors are broadly divided into four major parts:
    • Continental shelf 
    • Continental slope
    • Abyssal plains
    • The ocean deeps
  • Continental shelf is the part of a continent that is submerged in a shallow level of water.
  • The shallow water on the Continental shelf allows sunlight to reach to the bottom and helps in growth of microscopic plants and animals called planktons. These planktons act as food for fishes.
  • The continental shelf off the eastern coast of India is much wider than that of the western coast.

7. Consider the following statements :

1. Coral reefs are generally found deep inside the seafloor or Abyssal plains.
2. Submarine Canyons are generally found on the continental shelf.

Which of the above statements are true?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None of the Above

Correct Answer – (b) 2 only 

  • Coral reefs need sunlight to survive hence they can exist only in the shallow water areas of continental shelf.
  • Coral reefs do not exist in seafloor or Abyssal plains.
  • Submarine Canyons are ‘steep sided valleys’ created on continental shelves and can extend till Continental slope.
  • They are similar to the gorges found on the continents.

8. The largest continental shelf of the world is located in which among the following oceans ?

(a) Pacific Ocean
(b) Atlantic Ocean
(c) Indian Ocean
(d) Arctic Ocean

Correct Answer – (d) Arctic Ocean

  • The largest continental shelf of the world is the Siberian Shelf in the Arctic Ocean.
  • It is 1500 kilometers in width.

9. Consider the following statements :

1. Continental slopes connect Continental shelf to Abyssal plains.
2. Abyssal plains are mostly flat.

Which of the above statements are true?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None of the Above

Correct Answer – (c) Both 1 and 2 

  • Continental slopes connect Continental shelf to Abyssal plains.
  • There are very few living organisms on the continental slopes as compared to the continental  shelf.
  • Abyssal plains are mostly flat and featureless plains existing on the deep ocean floor.
  • Abyssal plains cover more than 50% of Earth’s total surface.

10. Consider the following statements about the Submarine ridges :

1. They exist in deep ocean floors.
2. They are generally associated with earthquakes.

Which of the above statements are true?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None of the Above

Correct Answer – (c) Both 1 and 2 

  • Submarine ridges also known as mid-oceanic ridges exist in deep ocean floors(almost near the middle of the oceans ).
  • They are generally associated with frequent earthquakes and volcanism.

11. The volcanos rising above the ocean floor whose top gets flattened by erosion are called ?

(a) Seamounts
(b) Guyots
(c) Trenches
(d) None of the Above

Correct Answer – (b) Guyots

  • Majority of the volcanoes of the world are found in the seas.
  • They are scattered over the entire sea floor
  • The volcanos rising above the ocean floor whose top gets flattened by erosion are called Guyots.
  • The volcanoes rising above the ocean floor whose top is intact and sharp are called Seamounts.
  • In case when volcanoes rise above the sea, they create volcanic islands. Hawaii islands are examples of such islands.

12. Consider the following statements :

1. The oceans get heated and cooled slower than the land surfaces.
2. The temperature of Ocean surface water increases from the equator towards the poles.

Which of the above statements are true?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None of the Above

Correct Answer – (a) 1 only 

  •  The oceans get heated and cooled slower than the land surfaces. Due to this feature, areas lying near the sea experience moderate climate.
  • The temperature of Ocean surface water increases from the equator towards the poles. This is caused due to lower insolation received by the ocean surface from the equator towards the poles.

13. Consider the following statements :

1. Lagoon is a shallow body of sea water.
2. Coral Reefs need warm and shallow water to grow.

Which of the above statements are true?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None of the Above

Correct Answer – (c) Both 1 and 2 

  • Lagoon is a shallow body of sea water or brackish water separated from the sea by a barrier.
  • The biggest lagoon in the world is in New Caledonia which is a French Pacific territory. 
  • It’s a UNESCO World Heritage Site and a major tourist destination. 
  • Coral Reefs need warm and shallow water to grow.
  • Due to high levels of biodiversity, they are also called ‘Rainforests of the sea’.
  • The largest Coral reef in the world is the Great Barrier Reef. 
  • It is located in Australia.

14. On the basis of temperature, oceans are vertically divided into how many parts ?

(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5

Correct Answer – (b) 3

  • Sea temperature decreases with increasing depth but the rate of decrease of temperature is not uniform.
  • On the basis of temperature, oceans are vertically divided into three parts:
  • Photic Zone or Euphotic Zone: 
    • Upper layer of the ocean till 100 meters
    • The temperature is almost constant
  • Thermocline: 
    • Lies between 100-1000 meters 
    • There is a steep fall in the temperature
  • Deep Zone: 
    • Below 1000 meters
    • The temperature is near 0 °C(slightly higher than zero).

Also Read in World Geography MCQs :

World Geography MCQs – 05 (Universe and Solar System)

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World Geography MCQs – 05 (Universe and Solar System)

Universe and Solar System MCQs with answers and explanations for all examinations.

Chapterwise MCQs

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Free Test Series

CivilsCracker Explains

1. Which of the following planets have rings around them:

1. Jupiter
2. Saturn
3. Mars
4. Uranus

Choose from the following options:

(a) 1 and 2 Only
(b) 1, 2 and 3 Only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 Only
(d) 1, 2 and 4 Only

Correct Answer –  (d) 1, 2 and 4 Only

  • Jupiter, Saturn and Uranus have rings around them. 
  • These are belts of small debris. 
  • These rings may be seen from the earth with the help of powerful telescopes.

2. Which of the following is correctly matched:

1. Brightest Planet → Venus
2. Largest Planet → Jupiter
3. Earth’s Twin → Venus

Choose the correct matches from the following options:

(a) 1 and 2 Only
(b) 2 and 3 Only
(c) 1 and 3 Only
(d) All are correctly matched

Correct Answer – (d) All are correctly matched

  • Venus is called Earth’s twin because of its similar size, mass, and composition to Earth.
  • Venus is the second planet from the sun in terms of distance.
  • Venus is the brightest planet in the solar system, and is often visible in the night sky within a few hours of sunset or before sunrise therefore it is also called the “Morning star” or “Evening star”.
  • Jupiter is the largest in the Solar System. 
  • It is the fifth planet from the Sun in terms of distance.

3. Hottest Planet in the Solar System is :

(a) Venus
(b) Mercury
(c) Mars
(d) Jupiter

Correct Answer – (a) Venus 

  • Venus is the hottest planet in our solar system.
  • Venus has a thick atmosphere made up of greenhouse gasses like carbon dioxide which traps heat and creates a greenhouse effect. 
  • This greenhouse effect causes the rise in surface temperature of Venus to around 465°C (865°F).

4. Which among the following planets is called Red planet :

(a) Venus
(b) Mercury
(c) Mars
(d) Jupiter

Correct Answer – (c) Mars 

  • Mars is known as the red planet because it looks red from Earth. 
  • The reddish color comes from the high concentration of iron oxide in the rocks of the Martian surface.
  • Phobos and Deimos are the two moons of Mars.

5. The Asteroid Belt is located between which among the following planets :

(a) Venus & Mercury
(b) Venus & Earth
(c) Mars & Earth
(d) Mars & Jupiter

Correct Answer – (d) Mars & Jupiter

  • The Asteroid Belt is located between Mars & Jupiter.
  • It contains a great many solid and irregularly shaped bodies/protoplanets called asteroids.
  • Ceres is the largest asteroid.

6. Europa and Ganymede are the moons of ? :

(a) Venus
(b) Mercury
(c) Mars
(d) Jupiter

Correct Answer – (d) Jupiter

  • Europa and Ganymede are the moons of Jupiter.
  • Ganymede is the largest moon in the solar system.

7. Titan is the moons of ? :

(a) Venus
(b) Saturn
(c) Mars
(d) Jupiter

Correct Answer – (b) Saturn 

  • Titan is the largest moon of Saturn and the second largest moon in the Solar System.
  • It is the only moon known to have an atmosphere denser than that of Earth’s.

8. The brightest star outside our solar system is ?

(a) Sirius
(b) Proxima Centauri
(c) Alpha Centauri
(d) None of the above

Correct Answer – (a) Sirius

  • The brightest star outside our solar system is Sirius, also known as the ‘Dog Star’.

9. Consider the following statements about Black holes:

1. The center of the black hole is called the singularity.
2. Black holes have massive gravitational force.

Which of the above assertions is/are true?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None of the Above

Correct Answer – (c) Both 1 and 2 

  • Black holes are the combination of large mass and small size having high density.
  • The center of the black hole is called the Singularity.
  • A black hole exerts such massive gravitational force that its escape velocity is equal or more than speed of light.

10. Consider the following statements about Galaxy :

1. We live in the galaxy called the Milky Way.
2. It is a spiral galaxy.

Which of the above assertions is/are true?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None of the Above

Correct Answer – (c) Both 1 and 2 

  • Galaxies can be of various kinds like elliptical, spirals etc.
  • We live in the galaxy called the Milky Way.
  • It is a spiral galaxy.
  • The Andromeda Galaxy is the closest large galaxy to the Milky Way which can even be seen from earth with naked eyes.

11. Consider the following statements about Stars:

1. Stars shine because nuclear fission occurs in their core.
2. Proxima centauri is the closest star to Earth after the sun.

Which of the above assertions is/are true?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None of the Above

Correct Answer – (b) 2 only 

  • Stars shine because nuclear fusion occurs in their core.
  • Nuclear fusion converts lighter elements into heavier ones and in the process releases tremendous amounts of energy.
  • Proxima centaury is the closest star to Earth after the Sun. It is about 4.3 light-years away from Earth.

12. Consider the following statements about about Sun:

1. The Sun is not a solid object but rather a big ball.
2. The Sun is mostly made of Hydrogen and Helium.

Which of the above assertions is/are true?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None of the Above

Correct Answer – (c) Both 1 and 2 

  • Both the statements are true.
  • The Sun is not a solid object but rather a big ball.
  • It is mostly made of Hydrogen and Helium.

13. Consider the following statements::

1. Comets can have a long tail-like structure attached to them.
2. Meteors burn up in the atmosphere and can never reach the earth surface.

Which of the above assertions is/are true?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None of the Above

Correct Answer – (a) 1 only 

  • Comets are rocky and icy objects that move in long, highly elliptical orbits around the Sun.
  • When they get closer to the Sun, they warm up, causing the ice in the comets to vaporize and form long “tails”.
  • A Meteor is an object from outer space that enters Earth’s atmosphere, but does not land on Earth as it gets burned in the atmosphere . However, some meteors are large enough to reach the earth surface. Those are called Meteorites.

14. Which among the following planets is called Blue Planet ?

(a) Venus
(b) Mercury
(c) Mars
(d) Earth

Correct Answer – (d) Earth

  • Earth is called the “Blue Planet” due to the abundant water on its surface.
  • Two-thirds of the earth’s surface is covered with water.

13. Parsec is used to measure which among the following ?

(a) Density of stars
(b) Astronomical distances
(c) Brightness of stars
(d) Orbital velocity of planets

Correct Answer – (b) Astronomical distances

  • A parsec (pc) is a unit of length used to measure the Astronomical distances outside the solar system. 
  • It’s the largest unit of distance used in astronomy. 
  • One parsec is approximately equal to 3.26 light-years.

Also Read in World Geography MCQs :

World Geography MCQs – 04 (Atmosphere)

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World Geography MCQs – 04 (Atmosphere)

Atmosphere MCQs with answers and explanations for all examinations.

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Short Notes

Free Test Series

CivilsCracker Explains

1. What is the correct sequence of gasses found in the atmosphere on the basis of the percentage in descending order ?

(a) Nitrogen > oxygen > helium > carbon dioxide
(b) Nitrogen > oxygen > carbon dioxide > argon
(c) Nitrogen > oxygen > argon > carbon dioxide
(d) Nitrogen > oxygen > methane > carbon dioxide

Correct Answer – (c) Nitrogen > oxygen > argon > carbon dioxide

  • Atmosphere is a mixture of many gasses in which following are the major gasses:
    • Nitrogen – 78%
    • Oxygen – 21%
    • Argon – 0.93%
    • Carbon dioxide – 0.03%
    • Other gasses – 0.04%

2. Consider the following statements:

1. Nitrogen is the most plentiful gas in the air.
2. Plants fulfill their need for nitrogen, directly from the air.

Which of the above statements is/are true?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 & 2
(d) None of the above

Correct Answer – (a) 1 only

  • Nitrogen is the most plentiful gas in the air(78% of all the gasses). 
  • When we inhale, we take some amount of nitrogen into our lungs and exhale it. 
  • Plants also need nitrogen for their survival(as it is a vital nutrient) however they cannot take nitrogen directly from the air. 
  • Bacteria that live in the soil and roots of some plants take nitrogen from the air and change its form so that plants can use it. These types of bacterias are called Nitrogen-fixing bacteria.
  • The bacteria take nitrogen from the air as a gas and release it into the soil, mainly as ammonia which can be used by plants.
  • Example – Rhizobium, Azotobacter.

3. On the basis of temperature, the atmosphere has been divided into how many layers ?

(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 5
(d) None of the above

Correct Answer – (c) 5

  • On the basis of temperature, the atmosphere has been divided into five layers which are as following:
    • Troposphere
    • Stratosphere
    • Mesosphere
    • Thermosphere or Ionosphere
    • Exosphere

4. The lowest layer of Earth’s atmosphere is ?

(a) Troposphere
(b) Stratosphere
(c) Mesosphere
(d) Thermosphere

Correct Answer – (a) Troposphere 

  • Troposphere is the lowest layer of Earth’s atmosphere.
  • The troposphere starts at the surface of the earth and goes up to a height of 8 km at poles and up to 18 kms at the equator.
  • In the Troposphere, Temperature decreases with increase in height.

5. All the weather related phenomena like rainfall, fog and hailstorm occur in which layer of atmosphere ?

(a) Troposphere
(b) Stratosphere
(c) Mesosphere
(d) Thermosphere

Correct Answer – (a) Troposphere 

  • The troposphere is the most important layer of the atmosphere. 
  • Its average height is 13 kilometers.
  • Almost all the weather phenomena like rainfall, fog and hailstorm occur in this layer.

6. The layer of the atmosphere found above the troposphere is ?

(a) Troposphere
(b) Stratosphere
(c) Mesosphere
(d) Thermosphere

Correct Answer – (b) Stratosphere 

  • The layer of the atmosphere found above the troposphere is the Stratosphere .
  • It is the second layer of atmosphere.
  • It goes up to 50 km from the surface of earth.
  • The stratosphere is almost free from clouds and other associated weather phenomena hence it is most ideal for flying airplanes.
  • Only exception is polar stratospheric clouds which occur mainly at high latitudes during the extreme winter.

7. The Ozone layer is found in which among the following layers of atmosphere ?

(a) Troposphere
(b) Stratosphere
(c) Mesosphere
(d) Thermosphere

Correct Answer – (b) Stratosphere 

  • The Ozone layer is found in the Stratosphere.
  • This Ozone layer is very vital in preserving life on earth as it absorbs UV rays coming from the sun and protects the earth from harmful radiations.

8. Consider the following statements :

1. The transitional zone between Troposphere and Stratosphere is called Tropopause.
2. The transitional zone between Stratosphere and Mesosphere is called Stratopause

Which of the above assertions is/are true?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None of the Above

Correct Answer – (c) Both 1 and 2 

  • Both the statements are correct.
  • The transitional zone between Troposphere and Stratosphere is called Tropopause.
  • Mesosphere is the third layer of the atmosphere. It lies above the stratosphere and extends up to the height of 80 km. 
  • The transitional zone between Stratosphere and Mesosphere is called Stratopause

9. Which among the following is the coldest atmospheric layer ?

(a) Troposphere
(b) Stratosphere
(c) Mesosphere
(d) Thermosphere

Correct Answer – (c) Mesosphere 

  • Mesosphere is the third layer of the atmosphere and the coldest among all.
  • Temperature in the Mesosphere  can reach up to -173 degrees Celsius.
  • Meteors while entering into earth’s atmosphere get burned in this layer hence saving the earth’s surface and its inhabitants.

10. Which among the following atmospheric layers reflects the radio waves transmitted from the earth ?

(a) Troposphere
(b) Stratosphere
(c) Mesosphere
(d) Thermosphere

Correct Answer – (d) Thermosphere

  • Thermosphere starts at Mesopause at 80 km and extends up to 400 km.
  • It  reflects the radio waves transmitted from the earth back and important for radio/satellite communication on earth.
  • The temperature increases with the increase in height in the Thermosphere.

11. Ionosphere is part of which among the following layers ?

(a) Troposphere
(b) Stratosphere
(c) Mesosphere
(d) Thermosphere

Correct Answer – (d) Thermosphere

  • The Ionosphere is a part of the thermosphere.
  • The lower Thermosphere is called the Ionosphere which contains electrically charged particles known as ions.

12. Which among the following is the outermost layer of the atmosphere ?

(a) Exosphere
(b) Stratosphere
(c) Mesosphere
(d) Thermosphere

Correct Answer – (a) Exosphere

  • Exosphere is the outermost layer of the atmosphere.
  • Molecules found here have extremely low density and can escape into space.
  • Most artificial satellites orbit earth in this layer.

13. Which of the following assertions is/are true?

1. The gravitational force of the earth holds the atmosphere around it.
2. The changes in the atmosphere produce changes in the weather and climate.
3. Plant and animal kingdom together make biosphere or the living world.

(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) All of the above

Correct Answer – (d) All of the above

  • The gravitational force of the earth holds the atmosphere around it. It protects us from the harmful rays and scorching heat of the sun. 
  • The atmosphere consists of a number of gasses, dust and water vapor. 
  • The changes in the atmosphere produce changes in the weather and climate. Plant and animal kingdom together make the biosphere or the living world. 
  • It is a narrow zone of the earth where land, water and air interact with each other to support life.

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