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Size and Location of India | Indian Geography Short Notes

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Size and Location of India

Indian Geography short notes – Size and Location of India notes for UPSC Prelims and other examinations

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Location of India: 

  • Entirely in the Northern Hemisphere.
  • Between latitudes 8°4’N and 37°6’N and longitudes 68°7’E and 97°25’E. Southern boundary extends up to 6°45′ N latitude in the Bay of Bengal.
  • Tropic of Cancer (23° 30’N) divides India into almost two equal parts.

Size of India: 

  • 2.4% of the total geographical area of the world. 
  • 7th largest country in the world by area.
  • Land frontiers of India measure  – 15,200 km.
  • Total length of the coastline – 7,516.6 km.
  • Standard Meridian of India – 82°30’E (Passes through Uttar Pradesh, Orissa, Andhra Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Chattisgarh).
  • Latitudinal and longitudinal extent of India – About 29 degrees.
  • North to south – 3,214 km .
  • East to west – 2,933 km.
  • Northern most point –  Indira Col in Jammu and Kashmir
  • Southernmost point – Indira Point, situated in Campbell bay in Great Nicobar Island.
  • Easternmost point of India – Kibithu in the Anjaw district of  Arunachal Pradesh.
  • Westernmost point of India – Guhar Moti in the Kutch district of Gujarat.

Neighbors of India:

  • Pakistan and Afghanistan in the Northwest
  • China (Tibet), Nepal and Bhutan in the North
  • Myanmar and Bangladesh in the East
  • Sri Lanka and Maldives in the South
  • Longest boundary with Bangladesh 

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Indian Geography MCQs – 3 (Rivers of India)

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Indian Geography MCQs – 3 (Rivers of India)

Rivers of India MCQs with answers and explanations for preparation of UPSC, BPSC, UPPSC and other State PSC Examinations

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1. Which of the following rivers is not a tributary of Indus ?

(a)  Jhelum

(b)  Chenab

(c)  Kosi

(d)  Sutlej

Correct Answer: (c)  Kosi

  • Major tributaries of Indus:
    • Indus
    • Jhelum
    • Chenab 
    • Ravi
    • Beas
    • Sutlej
    • Zaskar
  • Kosi is a tributary of Ganga. It is the third largest tributary of the Ganges by water discharge after the Ghaghara and the Yamuna.
  • As river Kosi causes annual floods in Bihar, it is known as the “Sorrow of Bihar”.

2. Consider the following statements 

  1. The Great Northern plain of India has been formed by the silt brought down by Himalayan rivers.
  2. Some of the Himalayan rivers are even older than the Himalayas itself.

Select the correct statements : 

(a)  1 Only

(b)  2 Only

(c)  None of the above

(d)  All the above

Correct Answer: (d)  All the above

  • The Great Northern plain of India has been formed by the silt brought down by Himalayan rivers. This is the reason, northern plains are rich in alluvium hence very fertile.
  • Some of the Himalayan rivers are even older than the Himalayas itself. This is the reason they have made deep gorges and valleys.

3. Which of the following rivers is not a tributary of Ganga ?

(a)  Ramganga

(b)  Ghagra

(c)  Yamuna

(d)  Vaigai

Correct Answer: (d)  Vaigai

  • Major tributaries of Ganga:
    • Ramganga
    • Ghagra
    • Gomti
    • Gandak
    • Kosi
    • Yamuna
    • Son
    • Damodar
  • Vaigai is not a tributary of Ganga. It is a southern river which flows in Tamilnadu.

4. Which of the following rivers is not a tributary of Brahmaputra?

(a)  Dibang

(b)  Lohit

(c)  Tsangpo

(d)  Tista

Correct Answer: (c)  Tsangpo

  • Major tributaries of Brahmaputra:
    • Dibang
    • Lohit
    • Tista
    • Subansiri
    • Manas
  • Tsangpo is another name of Brahmaputra. The Brahmaputra is known as the Tsangpo river in Tibet.
  • Brahmaputra is known as the Dihang in  Arunachal Pradesh.

5. Which of the following rivers flows from east to west ?

(a)  Godavari

(b)  Mahanadi

(c)  Krishna

(d)  Tapi

Correct Answer: (d)  Tapi

  • Narmada and Tapi are the only major rivers in India which flow from east to west.
  • As the Peninsular plateau is slightly tilted towards east, all the major rivers of Peninsular India flows from west to east.
  • Narmada and Tapi are the only exceptions as they flow through fault or rift valleys.

6. Which of the following rivers is not a tributary of Yamuna?

(a)  Chambal

(b)  Betwa

(c)  Sind

(d)  Son

Correct Answer: (d)  Son

  • Major tributaries of Yamuna:
    • Chambal
    • Betwa
    • Sind
    • Ken
  • Son is a tributary of Ganga. It is the second-largest tributary of the Ganges after the Yamuna. It joins Ganga from the south.

7. Shyok river is a tributary of which of the following ?

(a)  Indus

(b)  Ganga

(c)  Yamuna

(d)  Brahmaputra

Correct Answer: (a)  Indus

  • Shyok river is a tributary of Indus. It flows through northern Ladakh and enters Gilgit–Baltistan.
  • Nubra river is a tributary of Shyok .
  • The Shyok River meets the Nubra River to form a large valley that separates the Ladakh range from Karakoram Ranges.
  • Other smaller tributaries of Indus : Zaskar, Hunza.

8. Which of the following rivers does not originate near Mansarovar Lake ?

(a)  Indus

(b)  Ganga

(c)  Sutlej

(d)  Brahmaputra

Correct Answer: (b)  Ganga

  • The Brahmaputra, Indus and  Sutlej originate near Mansarovar Lake in Tibet.
  • Ganga originates as the Bhagirathi from the Gangotri glacier. After the confluence of the Bhagirathi and Alaknanda rivers in Devprayag (Uttarakhand), it is known as Ganga.

9. Which of the following rivers is not part of the famous Panch Prayag ?

(a)  Alaknanda 

(b)  Nandakini

(c)  Mandakini

(d)  Godavari

Correct Answer: (d)  Godavari

  • Rivers of Panch Prayag(Five places of confluence of rivers): 
    • Vishnu Prayag – Dhauli Ganga meets Alaknanda 
    • Nand Prayag: Nandakini meets Alaknanda
    • Karnaprayag: Pinder meets Alaknanda
    • Rudraprayag: Mandakini meets Alaknanda
    • Devprayag: Alaknanda meets Bhagirathi  and their combined stream is known as Ganga.
  • The Godavari is a river in peninsular india. It is also known as ‘Dakshin Ganga’. It originates in Trimbakeshwar, Nashik, Maharashtra.

10. River Tons is a tributary of which of the following ?

(a)  Indus

(b)  Ganga

(c)  Yamuna

(d)  Brahmaputra

Correct Answer: (c)  Yamuna

  • Tons is the largest tributary of the Yamuna whereas Yamuna is the largest tributary of the Ganga.

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Indian Geography MCQs – 2 (Physical features of India)

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Indian Geography MCQs – 2 (Physical features of India)

Physical features of India MCQs with answers and explanations for preparation of UPSC, BPSC, UPPSC and other State PSC Examinations

Chapterwise MCQs

Short Notes

1. Consider the following statements 

  1. The southern slopes of Himalayas facing India are steeper and those facing the Tibetan side are generally gentler.
  2. Himadri(Greater Himalaya) is the northernmost and the highest range of the Himalayas.

Select the correct statements : 

(a)  1 Only

(b)  2 Only

(c)  None of the above

(d)  All the above

Correct Answer: (d)  All the above

  • The southern slopes of Himalayas facing India are steeper and those facing the Tibetan side are generally gentler.
  • The Himalayas are classified into three parallel ranges. These are : 
    • Himadri
    • Himachal
    • Siwalik
  • Himadri(Greater Himalaya) is the northernmost and the highest range of the Himalayas.

2. Mount Everest is part of which among the following ?

(a)  Himadri

(b)  Himachal

(c)  Siwalik

(d)  None the above

Correct Answer: (a)  Himadri

  • Himadri (Greater Himalaya) is the northernmost and the highest range of the Himalayas.
  • The extent of this range is from the Nanga Parbat peak (8126 m) in the west and Namcha Barwa peak (7756 m) in the east.
  • The highest peak of the world, Mount Everest (8848 m) is situated in this range.

3. Kanchenjunga is part of which among the following ?

(a)  Himadri

(b)  Himachal

(c)  Siwalik

(d)  None the above

Correct Answer: (a)  Himadri

  • Kanchenjunga is the highest peak of the Himalayas in India.
  • It is part of the Himadri(Greater Himalaya) range.
  • Mount Everest, Makalu, Dhaulagiri, Annapurna are some of the other peaks of this range.

4. Pir Panjal and Dhauladhar are part of which among the following ?

(a)  Himadri

(b)  Himachal

(c)  Siwalik

(d)  None the above

Correct Answer: (b)  Himachal

  • Himachal (Lesser or Middle Himalaya) is located southwards of Himadri.
  • Pir Panjal in Jammu and Kashmir and Dhauladhar in Himachal Pradesh are part of this range.
  • The valley of Kashmir, Kullu and Kangra are a part of Himachal ranges.

5. The famous hill towns like Shimla, Nainital, Mussouri are located in which among the following ?

(a)  Himadri

(b)  Himachal

(c)  Siwalik

(d)  None the above

Correct Answer: (b)  Himachal

  • The famous hill towns like Shimla, Nainital, Mussouri, Almora and Darjeeling are located in Himachal range.
  • The valley of Kashmir, Kullu and Kangra are also a part of Himachal ranges.

6. The southern most range of Himalayas is known as ?

(a)  Himadri

(b)  Himachal

(c)  Siwalik

(d)  Trans Himalayas

Correct Answer: (c)  Siwaliks

  • Siwalik (Outer Himalaya) is the southernmost range of Himalayas.
  • The average height of the Siwalik range is very low compared to Himachal and Himadri.
  • There are broad valleys between the Himachal and the Siwalik ranges known as ‘Duns’. Dehradun valley is one of the best examples.

7. Which one of the following is located north of the Himadri range ?

(a)  Himadri

(b)  Himachal

(c)  Siwalik

(d)  Trans Himalayas

Correct Answer: (d)  Trans Himalayas

  • Mountain ranges like Karakoram, Ladakh and Zanskar are located in the north of the Himadri range.
  • Thay are classified as Trans Himalayas.

8. Majuli, the world’s largest river island, is located in which river ?

(a)  Ganga

(b)  Brahmaputra

(c)  Yamuna

(d)  Satluj

Correct Answer: (b)  Brahmaputra

  • Brahmaputra river is highly prone to devastating floods at regular intervals. 
  • After the floods, the river generally changes its course which has led to the formation of various islands in the river. 
  • Majuli, the world’s largest river island, is located in Brahmaputra 
  • This part of land is very fertile as it is made up of the deposition of alluvium brought by Brahmaputra river.

9. ‘Bangar’ and ‘Khadar’ are ?

(a)  Regions of northern plains

(b)  Islands of Brahmaputra

(c)  Hills of Purvanchal

(d)  Lakes of Himachal

Correct Answer: (a)  Regions of northern plains

  • The relatively higher part of the northern plains is called ‘Bangar,. 
  • This area is never covered with flood water from the rivers. 
  • The comparatively lower area is called the ‘Khadar’. This area is flooded by rivers almost every year.

10. Consider the following statements regarding the Peninsular Plateau of India:

  1. The general slope of this plateau is towards the east.
  2. The highest point of the plateau region is the Anai-mudi peak.

Select the correct statements : 

(a)  1 Only

(b)  2 Only

(c)  None of the above

(d)  All the above

Correct Answer: (d)  All the above

  • The Great Indian Plateau lies to the South of the Great Northern Plains.
  • River Narmada divides the main peninsular block of India into two parts:
    • The Central Highlands
    • The Peninsular Plateau
  • The general slope of the peninsular plateau is towards the east. This is the reason, most of the rivers in the region flow from west to east.
  • The highest point of the plateau region is the Anai-mudi peak located in the state of Kerala .

Also Read in Indian Geography MCQs :

Indian Polity MCQs – 21 (High Courts)

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Indian Polity MCQs and Mock Tests

Indian Polity MCQs – 21 (High Courts)

High Courts MCQs with answers and explanations for preparation of UPSC, BPSC, UPPSC and other State PSC Examinations

Free Mock Tests

Build Your Basics

1. Which one of the following is true about High courts?

(a)  It has original and appellate jurisdiction

(b)  It enjoys the power of judicial review

(c)  It acts as the court of law

(d)  All the above

Correct Answer: (d)  All the above

  • A high court enjoys the following jurisdictions :  
    • Original jurisdiction
    • Writ jurisdiction
    • Appellate jurisdiction
    • Supervisory jurisdiction
    • Control over subordinate courts
    • A court of record
    • Power of judicial review

2. At present, how many high courts are there in India?

(a)  25

(b)  21

(c)  28

(d)  29

Correct Answer:  (a)  25

  • Presently, there are 25 high courts in the country. 
  • Out of them, only three high courts have jurisdiction over more than one state.

3. Which one of the following articles deals with the appointment of judges of high court ?

(a)  Article 214

(b)  Article 217

(c)  Article 226

(d)  Article 216

Correct Answer:  (b) Article 217

  • As per the article 217 of the constitution, the judges of a high court are appointed by the President. 
  • The chief justice is appointed by the President after consultation with the chief justice of India and the governor of the state concerned.
  • Other judges are appointed by the President after consultation with the chief justice of India, the governor of the state and the chief justice of the state concerned. 
  • It is to be noted that in the Third Judges case of 1998, the Supreme Court ruled that in case of the appointment of high court judges, the chief justice of India should consult a collegium of two senior-most judges of the Supreme Court. A sole opinion of the chief justice of India alone does not complete the consultation process.

4. High courts issue writs under which among the following articles ?

(a)  220

(b)  221

(c)  213

(d)  226

Correct Answer :  (d)  226

  • Article 226 of the Constitution empowers a high court to issue writs including Habeas corpus, Mandamus, Certiorari, Prohibition and Quo Warranto for the enforcement of the fundamental rights of the citizens and also for any other purpose as it deems fit.
  • It is to be noted that the Supreme Court can issue writs only for the enforcement of fundamental rights and not for any other purpose whereas high courts can issue writs for the enforcement of an ordinary legal right also.

5. The minimum age to become a judge of a high court is which among the following ?

(a) 35 Years

(b) 40 Years

(c) 30 Years

(d) None of the above

Correct Answer :  (d) None of the above

  • To be appointed as a judge of a high court, a person : 
    • Should be a citizen of India
    • Should have held a judicial office for ten years OR
    • Should have been an advocate of a high court/courts for ten years
  • There is no minimum age for appointment as a judge of a high court.
  • A judge of a high court holds office until he attains the age of 62 years.

6. Who among the following has power to extend the jurisdiction of a high court to any union territory or exclude the jurisdiction of a high court from any union territory ?

(a) Prime minister

(b) Parliament

(c) Governor

(d) President

Correct Answer :  (b) Parliament

  • The Parliament has the authority to extend the jurisdiction of a high court to any union territory or exclude the jurisdiction of a high court from any union territory.

7. Who is authorized to transfer the judges of one High Court to another High Court?

(a) The President

(b) The Chief Justice of India

(c) A collegium of judges of the Supreme Court.

(d) The Law Minister

Correct Answer :  (a) The President

  • The President after consultation with the Chief Justice of India can transfer a judge from one high court to any other high court. 
  • It is to be noted that, in the third Judges case of 1998, the Supreme Court ruled that in case of the transfer of high court judges, the Chief Justice of India should consult a collegium of four senior most judges of the Supreme Court, the chief justice of the two high courts (one from which the judge is being transferred and the other receiving him).

8. Salary and allowances of the judges of the High Court of the state are charged on which one of the following funds?

(a) Consolidated fund of India

(b) Consolidated fund of the State

(c) Contingency fund of India

(d) Contingency fund of the state

Correct Answer :  (b) Consolidated fund of the State

  • Salary and allowances of the judges of the High Court of the state is charged on Consolidated Fund of State. 
  • However the pension of the High Court judge is given from the Consolidated Fund of India.

9. Which of the following state/Union territories have a common High Court?

(a) Uttar Pradesh and Bihar

(b) Punjab, Haryana and Chandigarh

(c) Punjab and Jammu and Kashmir

(d) Assam and Bengal

Correct Answer :  (b) Punjab, Haryana and Chandigarh

  • Punjab, Haryana and Chandigarh share a high court.
  • The Constitution of India has provided for a high court for each state, but the Seventh Amendment Act of 1956 authorized the Parliament to establish common high court for two or more states/union territories

10. A high court judge can write his letter of resignation to which of the following ?

(a) The President

(b) The Chief Justice of India

(c) The Chief Justice of High Court

(d) The Governor of the state

Correct Answer : (a) The President

  • The high court judge addresses his letter of resignation to the President.
  • A judge of a high court can also be removed from his office by an order of the President. 
  • The President can issue the order for removal only after an address by the Parliament has been presented to him for such removal. The address must be supported by a special majority of each House of Parliament.
  • Grounds of removal :
    • Proved misbehavior
    • Incapacity

Also Read in Indian Polity MCQs :

Size and location of India MCQs | Indian Geography MCQs

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Size and location of India MCQs | Indian Geography MCQs

Size and location of India MCQs with answers and explanations for preparation of UPSC, BPSC, UPPSC and other State PSC Examinations

Chapterwise MCQs

Short Notes

1. In terms of area, India is at which position in the world ?

(a) 7th largest

(b) 4th largest

(c) 5th largest

(d) 6th largest

Correct Answer: (a) 7th largest

  • In terms of size, India is the seventh largest country in the world.
  • The largest country in the world is Russia.
  • Following the are 7 largest countries of the world:
    • Russia
    • Canada
    • China
    • United States
    • Brazil
    • Australia
    • India

2. India and Sri Lanka are separated by which among the following strait ?

(a) Malacca Strait

(b) Sunda Strait

(c) Palk Strait

(d) Strait of Gibraltar

Correct Answer: (c) Palk Strait

  • India and Sri Lanka are narrowly separated by the Palk Strait.

3. The Indian mainland extends between the following latitudes ?

(a) 8°4’N to 37°6′ N latitudes

(b) 9°4’N to 38°6′ N latitudes

(c) 3°4’N to 32°6′ N latitudes

(d) 5°4’N to 37°6′ N latitudes

Correct Answer: (a) 8°4’N to 37°6′ N latitudes

  • India lies completely in the Northern Hemisphere. 
  • The Indian mainland extends between 8°4’N to 37°6′ N latitudes and from 68°7′ E to 97°25′ E longitudes.
  • India’s latitudinal and longitudinal extent is about 29 degrees.

4. The length of India from north to south is which among the following ?

(a) 3,214 km

(b) 3,414 km

(c) 4,214 km

(d) 2,933 km

Correct Answer: (a) 3,214 km

  • India measures about 3,214 km from north to south and 2,933 km from east to west.

5. The easternmost point of India is located in the state of ?

(a) Aasam

(b) Arunachal Pradesh

(c) Meghalaya

(d) Sikkim

Correct Answer: (b) Arunachal Pradesh

  • Kibithu is the easternmost place of India. It is located in the Anjaw district of  Arunachal Pradesh.
  • Lohit River enters India at Kibithu.

6. The westernmost point of India is located in the state of ?

(a) Maharashtra

(b) Gujrat

(c) Rajasthan

(d) Panjab

Correct Answer: (b) Gujrat

  • Guhar Moti is the westernmost place of India.
  • It is located in the Kutch district of Gujarat.

7. The standard time meridian of India is ?

(a) 83°30′ E

(b) 82°30′ E

(c) 81°30′ E

(d) 80°30′ E

Correct Answer: (b) 82°30′ E

  • The standard time meridian of India is 82°30′ E. 
  • It passes through the following states of India:
    • Uttar Pradesh
    • Orissa
    • Andhra Pradesh
    • Madhya Pradesh
    • Chattisgarh

8. Broadly by how many hours does the local time of the eastern most point of India differ from that of the westernmost point ?

(a) 1 hour

(b) 2 hours

(c) 3 hours

(d) 4 hours

Correct Answer: (b) 2 hours

  • The variation in local time between the eastern and western extremities of India is about two hours

9. India accounts for the following percent of the world’s total land area ?

(a) 3.42 percent

(b) 4.42 percent

(c) 5.42 percent

(d) 2.42 percent

Correct Answer: (d) 2.42 percent

  • In terms of size, India is the seventh largest country in the world.
  • Its total area is 3.28 million sq. km.
  • It accounts for 2.42 percent of the world’s total land area.

10. Which one of the following countries shares the longest land border with India?

(a) Bangladesh

(b) China 

(c) Pakistan

(d) Myanmar

Correct Answer:  (a) Bangladesh

  • Bangladesh shares the longest boundary with India followed by China, Pakistan, Nepal, Myanmar, Bhutan and Afghanistan.

Also Read in Indian Geography MCQs :

Indian Polity MCQs – 20 (State Legislature)

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Indian Polity MCQs and Mock Tests

Indian Polity MCQs – 20 (State Legislature)

State Legislature MCQs with answers and explanations for preparation of UPSC, BPSC, UPPSC and other State PSC Examinations

Free Mock Tests

Build Your Basics

1. As per the Constitution of India, what is the limit prescribed for the number of members in the Legislative Assembly of a State ?

(a) 350 members

(b) 370 members

(c) 450 members

(d) 500 members

Correct Answer: (d) 500 members

  • The maximum strength of the Legislative Assembly of a State is fixed at 500 and minimum strength at 60. 
  • Its strength varies from 60 to 500 depending on the population size of the state.

2. The Legislative Council of a State in India can be created or abolished by which among the following ?

(a) Parliament on the recommendation of a Governor of the state

(b) Parliament on its own

(c) Parliament after the state assembly passes the resolution of that effect

(d) Governor of the state on the recommendation of the Council of Ministers

Correct Answer: (c) Parliament after the state assembly passes the resolution of that effect

  • Legislative councils in the state can be created or abolished by Parliament after the state assembly passes the resolution.
  • Such a resolution must be passed by the state assembly by a special majority, that is, a majority of the total membership of the assembly and a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members of the assembly present and voting.

3. Consider the following statements regarding the chairman of the Legislative Council of a state in India:

  1. He is elected by the members of the concerned state legislature.
  2. He can be removed from his office by a resolution passed by a majority of all those present and voting members of the concerned state legislature.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2

  • The Legislative Council elects its Chairman and Deputy Chairman from amongst its members. 
  • A Chairman or Deputy Chairman of a Legislative Council may be removed from his office by a resolution of the Council passed by a majority of all the then members of the Council. 
  • The maximum strength of the council is fixed at one-third of the total strength of the assembly and the minimum strength is fixed at 40.

4. Consider the following facts about the control of President on the State legislation : 

  1. The President has no direct power to disallow the  passage of a bill  by the state legislative assembly.
  2. The President can disallow the passage of a bill, passed by the state legislative assembly, if it is reserved by the State Governor for assent of the President.

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2 is correct

Correct Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

  • The President can disallow the passage of a bill, passed by the state legislative assembly, if it is reserved by the State Governor for assent of the President.
  • When a bill is reserved by the governor for the consideration of the President, the President may either give his assent to the bill or withhold his assent to the bill or return the bill for reconsideration of the House or Houses of the state legislature.

5. The functions of which of the following bodies in India are limited to advisory nature only?

(a) Legislative Council

(b) Rajya Sabha

(c) Lok Sabha

(d) Legislative Assembly

Correct Answer: (a) Legislative Council

  • If the legislative council rejects the bill passed by the Legislative Assembly, the assembly may pass the bill again and transmit the same to the council. If the council rejects the bill again or passes the bill with amendments not acceptable to the assembly or does not pass the bill within one month, then the bill is deemed to have been passed by both the Houses.
  • Hence, the Legislative Council can delay the bill but can stop a bill from getting passed by the Legislative Assembly.
  • Like the Rajya Sabha, the legislative council is a continuing chamber, that is, it is a permanent body and is not subject to dissolution. But, one-third of its members retire on the expiration of every second year.
  • A member continues to be a member for six years.

6. Who among the following recommends to the Parliament for the abolition of the Legislative Council in a State?

(a) The President of India

(b) The Governor of the concerned State

(c) The Legislative Council of the concerned State

(d) The Legislative Assembly of the concerned State

Correct Answer: (d) The Legislative Assembly of the concerned State

  • Under Article 169 of the constitution, The legislative assembly of the concerned state can recommend to the parliament for the abolition of the legislative council in the state.
  • Such a resolution must be passed by the state assembly by a special majority, that is, a majority of the total membership of the assembly and a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members of the assembly present and voting.

7. Which one of the following states does not have Vidhan Parishad ?

(a) Bihar

(b) Maharashtra

(c) Tamil Nadu

(d) Uttar Pradesh

Correct Answer: (c) Tamil Nadu

  • Only 6 out of 28 states of India have a Legislative Council. These are: 
    • Andhra Pradesh
    • Bihar
    • Karnataka
    • Maharashtra
    • Telangana
    • Uttar Pradesh
  • These states have bicameral legislatures as they have both the Legislative Council and Legislative Assembly.
  • Tamilnadu does not have a Legislative Council.

8. Which of the following statements is incorrect about the Legislative Council?

(a) 1/3rd of its members are elected by local bodies

(b) President has the final power to decide about its composition

(c) It is not subject to dissolution

(d) Minimum strength of Legislative Council cannot be less than 40

Correct Answer: (b) President has the final power to decide about its composition

  • The President does not have the final power to decide about the legislative council composition. 
  • The maximum strength of the council is fixed at one-third of the total strength of the assembly and the minimum strength is fixed at 40.
  • Like the Rajya Sabha, the legislative council is a continuing chamber, that is, it is a permanent body and is not subject to dissolution. But, one-third of its members retire on the expiration of every second year.
  • Manner of election of the members of legislative council: 
    • 1/3 are elected by the members of local bodies like municipalities, etc.
    • 1/12 are elected by graduates of three years standing and residing within the state
    • 1/12 are elected by teachers of three years standing in the state, not lower in standard than secondary school,
    • 1/3 are elected by the members of the legislative assembly of the state from amongst persons who are not members of the assembly
    • 1/6 are nominated by the governor from amongst persons who have a special knowledge or practical experience of literature, science, art, cooperative movement and social service.

9. If the budget is disclosed before introducing it in the Legislative Assembly, what will happen?

(a) Council of Ministers will have to resign

(b) Chief Minister will have to resign

(c) Finance Minister will have to resign

(d) None of the above

Correct Answer:  (c) If the budget is disclosed before introduction in the Legislative Assembly, the Finance Minister will have to resign.

10. To abolish a Legislative Council on a request of the concerned state Legislative Assembly, the parliament needs to pass legislation with a : 

(a) Simple majority

(b) Effective majority

(c) Special majority

(d) Special majority with ratification of 50% of the states

Correct Answer:  (a) Simple majority

  • To abolish a Legislative Council on a request of the concerned state Legislative Assembly, the parliament needs to pass legislation with a Simple majority.
  • This Act of Parliament is not deemed as an amendment of the Constitution under Article 368.

Also Read in Indian Polity MCQs :

Indian Polity MCQs – 19 (Chief Minister and council of ministers)

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Indian Polity MCQs and Mock Tests

Indian Polity MCQs – 19 (Chief Minister and council of ministers)

Chief Minister and council of ministers MCQs with answers and explanations for preparation of UPSC, BPSC, UPPSC and other State PSC Examinations

Free Mock Tests

Build Your Basics

1. Which among the following statements are correct regarding the duties of the Chief Minister ?

  1. The Chief Minister communicates to the Governor all decisions of the Council of Ministers related to the administration of the affairs of the State.
  2. The Chief Minister communicates to the Governor the proposals for legislation.
  3. The Chief Minister submits for the consideration of the Council of Ministers any matter on which decision has been taken by a minister but which has not been considered by the council as if the Governor requires.

Codes:

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 1 and 3

(c) 1, 2 and 3

(d) None of the above

Correct Answer: (c) 1, 2 and 3

  • The Chief Minister communicates to the Governor all decisions of the Council of Ministers related to the administration of the affairs of the State.
  • The Chief Minister communicates to the Governor the proposals for legislation.
  • The Chief Minister submits for the consideration of the Council of Ministers any matter on which decision has been taken by a minister but which has not been considered by the council as if the Governor requires.

2. A person who is not a member of the state legislature can be appointed as Chief Minister for a maximum period of ?

(a) 1 Month

(b) 3 Months

(c) 6 Months

(d) 12 Months

Correct Answer: (c) 6 Months

  • The Constitution does not prescribe that a person must prove his majority in the legislative assembly before he can be appointed as the chief Minister. 
  • The governor may first appoint him as the Chief Minister and then ask him to prove his majority.
  • A person who is not a member of the state legislature can be appointed as Chief Minister for a maximum period of six months. If he is not elected to the state legislature during this time, he ceases to be the Chief Minister.
  • The Chief Minister can be a member of any of the two Houses of a state legislature.

3. According to which Article of Constitution of India, the Chief Minister is appointed by the Governor of A State ?

(a) Article 163

(b) Article 164

(c) Article 165

(d) Article 166

Correct Answer: (b) Article 164

  • Article 164 of the constitution states that The Chief Minister shall be appointed by the Governor and the other Ministers shall be appointed by the Governor on the advice of the Chief Minister.
  • The Governor administers the oaths of office to a minister.

4. Which among the following statements is not correct about the Chief Minister ?

(a) He acts as a vice-chairman of the concerned zonal council by rotation

(b) He is a member of the Inter-State Council

(c) He advises the governor with regard to the appointment of advocate general of the state

(d) He advises the President with regard to the appointment of High court judge

Correct Answer: (d) He advises the President with regard to the appointment of High court judge

  • The Chief Minister has no role in the appointment of a High court judge.
  • He acts as a vice-chairman of the concerned zonal council by rotation.
  • He is a member of the Inter-State Council.
  • He advises the governor with regard to the appointment of advocate general of the state.
  • He also advises the governor with regard to the appointment of chairman and members of the state public service commission, state election commissioner etc.

5. The salaries and allowances of the Council of Ministers of the State Government are paid from the :

(a) Consolidated Fund of India

(b) Treasury of the State Government

(c) Contingency Fund of the State

(d) Consolidated Fund of the State

Correct Answer: (d) Consolidated Fund of the State

  • Members of the Legislative Assembly and the Legislative Council of a state are entitled to receive such salaries and allowances as may from time to time be determined by the State Legislature by a law.
  • The salary is paid from the consolidated fund of the state.

6.The ministers in the Council of Ministers at the state level are appointed by :

(a) President

(b) Governor

(c) Chief Minister

(d) Prime Minister

Correct Answer: (b) Governor

  • The ministers in the Council of Ministers at the state level are appointed by the Governor.
  • The governor appoints only those persons as ministers who are recommended by the Chief Minister.
  • The Chief Minister can ask a minister to resign or advise the governor to dismiss him in case of difference of opinion.

7. As per the constitution, the total number of ministers including the chief minister, should not exceed the following percent of the total strength of the state legislative assembly ?

(a) 10 percent

(b) 15 percent

(c) 20 percent

(d) 25 percent

Correct Answer: (b) 15 percent

  • As per the constitution, the total number of ministers including the chief minister, should not exceed 15 percent of the total strength of the state legislative assembly.
  • This provision was added by the 91st Amendment Act of 2003.

8. The state council of ministers are collectively responsible to which among the following ?

(a) President

(b) Governor

(c) State Legislative Assembly

(d) State Legislative Council

Correct Answer: (c) State Legislative Assembly

  • As per the Article 164 of the constitution, The council of ministers shall be collectively responsible to the State Legislative Assembly.
  • They work as a team and swim or sink together. 
  • In case the legislative assembly passes a no-confidence motion, all the ministers have to resign including those ministers who are from the legislative council.

9. State council of ministers hold office during the pleasure of which among the following ?

(a) President

(b) Governor

(c) State Legislative Assembly

(d) Prime minister

Correct Answer: (b) Governor

  • As per Article 164 of the constitution, the State council of ministers hold office during the pleasure of the governor.
  • This is called the principle of individual responsibility. 
  • The governor has power to remove a minister at a time even when the council of ministers enjoys the confidence of the legislative assembly; however, the governor can remove a minister only on the advice of the chief minister.

10. Consider the following statements :

  1. The Governor cannot function without the State Council of Ministers.
  2. A person who is not a member of the State Legislature cannot be appointed as a minister.
  3. The State Council of Ministers can function for some time even after the death or resignation of the Chief Minister.

Which of these is / are correct ?

(a) Only 1

(b) 2 and 3

(c) All of the above

(d) None of the above

Correct Answer: (a) Only 1

  • The Governor cannot function without the State Council of Ministers. As per the article 163 of the constitution, there shall be a Council of Ministers headed by Chief Minister to aid and advise the Governor in the exercise of his functions
  • A person who is not a member of the State Legislature can be appointed as a minister for a maximum period of 6 months.
  • The State Council of Ministers can not function without a chief minister.

Also Read in Indian Polity MCQs :

Indian Polity MCQs – 18 (The Governor)

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Indian Polity MCQs and Mock Tests

Indian Polity MCQs – 18 (The Governor)

The Governor MCQs with answers and explanations for preparation of UPSC, BPSC, UPPSC and other State PSC Examinations

Free Mock Tests

Build Your Basics

1. In a real sense the Governor of the State is appointed by the President on the advice of which of the following ?

(a) Prime Minister

(b) Chief Minister

(c) Vice-President

(d) Chief Justice

Correct Answer: (a) Prime Minister

  • In a real sense the Governor of the State is appointed by the President on the advice of the Prime Minister.
  • The governor is the executive head of the state however like the president, he is a nominal executive head.

2. Which among the following is not part of the state executive ?

(a) Governor

(b) Chief Minister and State council of ministers

(c) State election commissioner

(d) Advocate general of the state

Correct Answer: (c) State election commissioner

  • The state executive consists of:
    • Governor, 
    • Chief minister
    • Council of ministers 
    • Advocate general of the state
  • State election commissioner is not  part of the state executive.

3. The minimum age to become a governor of state is ?

(a) 30 Years

(b) 32 Years

(c) 35 Years

(d) 40 Years

Correct Answer: (c) 35 Years

  • The Constitution prescribes only two qualifications for the appointment of a person as a governor. A person : 
    • Should be a citizen of India
    • Should have completed the age of 35 years

4. The Governor of the State can be removed by which one of the following?

(a) Chief Minister

(b) Prime Minister

(c) Union Home Minister

(d) President

Correct Answer: (d) President

  • A governor holds office for a term of five years however, he can be removed by the President at any time.
  • He can also resign at any time by writing his resignation letter to the President.
  • The President can transfer a Governor from one state to another state and also can reappoint in the same state or any other state.

5. Which of the following are the discretionary powers of the Governor?

(a) Selection of Chief Minister

(b) Provide advice to the President regarding President’s rule in the concerned state.

(c) Returning back the bill to the State legislature for reconsideration.

(d) All the above

Correct Answer: (d) All the above

  • Discretionary powers of the Governor : 
    • Reservation of a bill for the consideration of the President
    • Provide advice to the President regarding President’s rule in the concerned state
    • Returning back the bill to the State legislature for reconsideration
    • Appointment of chief minister when no party has a clear majority
    • Seeking information from the chief minister with regard to the administrative and legislative matters of the state
    • Dissolution of the state legislative assembly if the council of ministers has lost its majority

6. Which among the following are appointed by the Governor ?

(a) Advocate General of the state

(b) Chief secretary of the State

(c) Vice-chancellors of universities

(d) All the above

Correct Answer: (d) All the above

  • Following are appointed by the Governor of the state:
    • Chief minister and other ministers(On the advice of Chief minister)
    • Advocate General of the state
    • Chief secretary of the State
    • Vice-chancellors of universities
  •  

7. Which among the following is not appointed by the Governor ?

(a) Chairman and members of the state public service commission

(b) State election commissioner

(c) Chief justice of high court

(d) All the above

Correct Answer: (c) Chief justice of high court

  • The Chief Justice of the high court is appointed by the President.
  • State election commissioner is appointed by the Governor.
  • Chairman and members of the state public service commission are appointed by the Governor.

8. Governor of the state nominates the following members in the state legislative council ?

(a) One-sixth

(b) One-third

(c) One-fourth

(d) One-tenth

Correct Answer: (a) One-sixth

  • Governor of the state nominates one-sixth of the members of the state legislative council from amongst persons having special knowledge and experience in literature, science, arts and social service.

9. As per the constitution, the governor has a very similar position in the state as the President has at center. However, the Governor does not have which among the following powers that President has ?

(a) Executive powers

(b) Legislative powers

(c) Judicial powers

(d) Emergency powers

Correct Answer: (d) Emergency powers

  • A governor has following powers similar to the President:
    • Executive Powers
    • Legislative Powers
    • Financial Powers
    • Judicial Powers
  • A governor does not has following power which the President has:
    • Diplomatic Powers
    • Military Powers
    • Emergency Powers

10. Which of the following statements is incorrect about the Governor of a state ?

(a) Governor can summon or prorogue the state legislature and dissolve the state legislative assembly

(b) He nominates one-sixth of the members of state legislative assembly

(c) He is responsible to set up State Finance Commission and present the report of commission in state legislature

(d) District judges are appointed by the Governor

Correct Answer: (b) He nominates one-sixth of the members of state legislative assembly

  • The Governor can summon or prorogue the state legislature and dissolve the state legislative assembly.
  • He can address the state legislature at the commencement of the first session after each general election and the first session of each year.
  • Governor nominates one-sixth of the members of the state legislative council(NOT in the state legislative assembly).
  • He is responsible for setting up the State Finance Commission and presenting the report of the commission in the state legislature.

Also Read in Indian Polity MCQs :

Indian Polity MCQs – 17 (The Supreme Court)

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Indian Polity MCQs and Mock Tests

Indian Polity MCQs – 17 (The Supreme Court)

The Supreme Court MCQs with answers and explanations for preparation of UPSC, BPSC, UPPSC and other State PSC Examinations

Free Mock Tests

Build Your Basics

1. Who among the following is considered as the guardian of fundamental rights ?

(a) Judiciary

(b) Executive

(c) Parliament

(d) None of above

Correct Answer: (a) Judiciary

  • Under the Indian constitution, the Judiciary(Supreme courts and high courts) are considered as the guardian of fundamental rights.
  • Any person whose fundamental rights are violated can approach the Supreme courts and high courts.
  • Supreme courts and high courts can issue writs for the enforcement of fundamental rights.

2. Who among the following appoints the Chief Justice and other Judges of the Supreme Court?

(a) Prime minister

(b) Vice-president

(c) Home minister

(d) President

Correct Answer: (d) President

  • The judges of the Supreme Court are appointed by the president.
  • The chief justice is appointed by the President after consultation with the judges of the Supreme Court and high courts.
  • The other judges are appointed by the president after consultation with the chief justice and other judges of the Supreme Court and the high courts.

3. “The independence of Judiciary”  in the Indian constitution is taken from.

(a) Britain

(b) USA

(c) South Africa

(d) Australia

Correct Answer: (b) USA

  • The idea of independence of Judiciary in the Indian constitution has been borrowed from the USA.
  • However, unlike the USA, where there is a double system of courts(one for the Federal and the other for the states), India has a single integrated judiciary with the Supreme Court at the top.
  • This single system of courts, enforces both central laws as well as the state laws.

4. Which among the following parts of the Indian constitution deals with the powers and jurisdiction of supreme courts ?

(a) Part V

(b) Part VI

(c) Part VII

(c) Part IV

Correct Answer: (a) Part V

  • The Supreme Court of India was established on January 28, 1950.
  • Articles 124 to 147 in Part V of the Constitution deal with the organization, independence, jurisdiction and powers of the Supreme Court.

5. Which article of the Constitution permits the Supreme Court to review its own judgment or order?

(a) Article 137

(b) Article 130

(c) Article 139

(c) Article 138

Correct Answer: (a) Article 137

  • Article 130 deals with the seat of supreme court. 
  • Article 137 of the Constitution permits the Supreme Court to review its own judgment or order. 
  • Article 138 deals with the enlargement of the jurisdiction of the supreme court 
  • Article 139 refers to the powers to issue certain writs.

6. What is the minimum age to become a judge of the supreme court ?

(a) 25 years

(b) 30 years

(c) 35 years

(d) None of the above

Correct Answer: (d) None of the above

  • To be appointed as a judge of the Supreme Court, A person:
    • Should be a citizen of India
    • Should have been a judge of a High Court for five years OR Should have been an advocate of a High Court for ten years OR Should be a distinguished jurist in the opinion of the president
  • There is no minimum age prescribed for appointment as a judge of the Supreme Court.

7. The tenure of a judge of the Supreme Court is ?

(a) 5 years

(b) 6 years

(c) 7 years

(d) None of the above

Correct Answer: (d) None of the above

  • The Constitution does not prescribe any fixed tenure for the judge of the Supreme Court.
  • A supreme Court judge retires when he attains the age of 65 years.
  • A Supreme Court judge can resign by writing his resignation to the president.

8. Which among the following is not a ground for removal of a Supreme Court judge ?

(a) Proved misbehavior

(b) Incapacity

(c) Mismanagement

(d) All of the above

Correct Answer: (c) Mismanagement

  • There are two grounds of removal of a Supreme Court judge.
    • Proved misbehavior
    • Incapacity
  • A Supreme Court judge can be removed from his office by the President if recommended by the Parliament.
  • The resolution to remove a Supreme Court judge must be passed by a special majority in each House of Parliament.
  • No judge of the Supreme Court has been removed so far.

9. Which of the following are the powers of the Supreme Court ?

(a) Original and Appellate Jurisdiction

(b) Appointment of ad-hoc judges

(c) Judicial review

(d) All the above

Correct Answer: (d) All the above

  •  The Supreme Court of India has following powers:
    • Original Jurisdiction.
    • Writ Jurisdiction.
    • Appellate Jurisdiction.
    • Advisory Jurisdiction.
    • A Court of Record(Power to punish for contempt).
    • Power of Judicial Review
    • Power to interpret constitution

10. The disputes regarding the election of the President and Vice-President of India can only be decided by the ?

(a) Parliament

(b) Election Commission

(c) Supreme Court

(d) High Court

Correct Answer: (c) Supreme Court

  • The disputes regarding the election of the President and Vice-President of India can only be decided by the Supreme Court. 
  • Its decision on this matter is exclusive and final.

Also Read in Indian Polity MCQs :

Indian Polity MCQs – 16 (Amendment of Constitution)

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Indian Polity MCQs and Mock Tests

Indian Polity MCQs – 16 (Amendment of Constitution)

Amendment of Constitution MCQs with answers and explanations for preparation of UPSC, BPSC, UPPSC and other State PSC Examinations

Free Mock Tests

Build Your Basics

1. Which article of the Indian Constitution deals with amendment procedure ?

(a) Article 268

(b) Article 352

(c) Article 356

(d) Article 368

Correct Answer: (d) Article 368

  • Article 368 in Part XX of the Constitution deals with the amendment procedure of Indian Constitution.
  • The Constitution confers power of amendment of constitution to Parliament.
  • However, the Parliament cannot amend those provisions which constitute the ‘Basic structure of the Constitution’. This was ruled by the Supreme Court in the Kesavananda Bharati case of 1973.

2. Consider the following statements related to Article 368 of the Constitution:

  1. A Constitutional Amendment Bill can be passed at a joint session of Parliament in case of deadlock between the two Houses.
  2. A proposal to amend the Constitution can only be introduced in the House of the People.

Which of these are correct ?

(a) 1 Only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) None of the above

Correct Answer: (d) None of the above

  • A Constitutional Amendment Bill can not be passed at a joint session of Parliament in case of deadlock between the two Houses. Each House must pass the bill separately to consider it to be passed.
  • A proposal to amend the Constitution can be introduced in either House of the Parliament.
  • The Constitutional Amendment Bill must be passed in each house by a special majority (a majority of the total membership of the House + a majority of two-thirds of the members of the House present and voting).

3. Consider the following statements related to Article 368 of the Constitution:

  1. It is obligatory for the President of India to give his assent to a Constitutional Amendment Bill passed under Article 368.
  2. To amend the 7th Schedule of the Constitution, ratification of more than half of the State legislature is essential.

Which of these are correct ?

(a) 1 Only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) None of the above

Correct Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

  • It is obligatory for the President of India to give his assent to a Constitutional Amendment Bill passed under Article 368. He can neither withhold his assent to the bill nor return the bill for reconsideration.
  • If the bill proposes to amend the federal features of the constitution, it must also be ratified by the legislatures of half of the states. State legislatures need to ratify it with a simple majority(a majority of the members of the House present and voting).
  • The 7th Schedule of the Indian Constitution divides the legislative power between the Union and State Governments using three lists:
    • Union list
    • State list
    • Concurrent list.

4. While amending the Constitution of India, which of the following subjects needs only a simple majority of the parliament?

  1. Directive principles of state policy
  2. Election of the President and its manner
  3. Creation of the Legislative Council in a State

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 only

(d) 3 only

Correct Answer: (d) 3 only

  • Some provisions of the Constitution can be amended by a simple majority of Parliament. For example :
    • Abolition or creation of legislative councils in states
    • Quorum in Parliament
    • Rules of procedure in Parliament
    • Delimitation of constituencies etc.

5. While amending the Constitution of India, which of the following subjects needs only a simple majority of the parliament?

  1. Change in name of existing state
  2. Change in the boundary of existing state
  3. Creation of new state

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) All of the above

(d) None of the above

Correct Answer: (c) All of the above

  • Following amendments need only simple majority:
    • Change in name of existing state
    • Change in the boundary of existing state
    • Creation of new state
    • Admission of new states in the Indian union

6. On which of the following are matters, a constitutional amendment is possible only with the ratification of the legislature of half of the states ?

  1. Election of the president
  2. Representation of the states in parliament
  3. Supreme Court and high courts
  4. Citizenship–acquisition and termination

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 1, 2 and 4 only

(c) 1, 3 and 4 only

(d) 2, 3 and 4 only

Correct Answer: (a) 1, 2 and 3 only

  • Following matters can be amended only with the ratification of the legislature of half of the states:
    • Election of the President
    • Representation of states in Parliament
    • Powers of Supreme Court and high courts
    • Executive powers of the Union and the states
    • Distribution of legislative powers between the Union and the states.
    • Matters mentioned in the Seventh Schedule

7. Amendment to which among the following schedules requires ratification of more than half of the State legislature ?

(a) 5th schedule

(b) 6th schedule

(c) 7th schedule

(d) None

Correct Answer: (c) 7th schedule

  • The 7th Schedule of the Indian Constitution divides the legislative power between the Union and State Governments using three lists:
    • Union list
    • State list
    • Concurrent list.
  • Matters mentioned in the Seventh Schedule can be amended only with the ratification of the legislature of half of the states.
  • Matters of 5th and 6th schedule can be amended with a simple majority.

8. The 101st Constitution Amendment Act, 2016 created a GST Council. Any amendment in the composition and powers of the GST Council requires which among the following ?

(a) A constitution amendment with a simple majority

(b) A constitution amendment with a special majority

(c) A constitution amendment with a Special majority along with the ratification of the legislature of half of the states

(d) Does not require a constitution amendment

Correct Answer: (c) A constitution amendment with a Special majority along with the ratification of the legislature of half of the states

  • The 101st Constitution Amendment Act, 2016 created a GST Council  consisting of the Union Finance Minister and representatives from all states to implement GST.
  • Any amendment in the composition and powers of the GST Council requires a constitution amendment with a special majority along with the ratification of the legislature of half of the states

9. Any amendment to the power of Parliament to amend the Constitution and its procedure mentioned under article 368 requires ?

(a) A constitution amendment with a simple majority

(b) A constitution amendment with a special majority

(c) A constitution amendment with a Special majority along with the ratification of the legislature of half of the states

(d) Article 368 can not be amended as it forms the basic structure of the constitution

Correct Answer: (c) A constitution amendment with a Special majority along with the ratification of the legislature of half of the states

  • Power of Parliament to amend the Constitution and its procedure mentioned under article 368 can be amended with a Special majority along with the ratification of the legislature of half of the states.

10. Which one of the following Bills must be passed by each House of the Parliament separately by a special majority ?

(a) Ordinary Bill

(b) Money Bill

(c) Finance Bill

(d) Constitution Amendment Bill

Correct Answer: (d) Constitution Amendment Bill

  • The Constitutional Amendment Bill must be passed in each house by a special majority (a majority of the total membership of the House + a majority of two-thirds of the members of the House present and voting).

Also Read in Indian Polity MCQs :

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