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Environment and Biodiversity MCQs – 06 ( Environmental Pollution and Climate Change)

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Environment and Bio-diversity

Environment and Biodiversity MCQs – 06 ( Environmental Pollution and Climate Change)

Most important MCQs from the chapter – Environmental Pollution and Climate Change MCQs for UPSC, State PSC and Other Examinations.

Chapterwise MCQs

Short Notes

Free Test Series

CivilsCracker Explains

1. Consider the following statements about primary and secondary pollutants:

1. A primary pollutant is an air pollutant emitted directly from a source unlike a secondary pollutant.
2. A primary pollutant has a much shorter life in the atmosphere than a secondary pollutant.

Which of the above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer – (a) 1 only

  • A primary pollutant is an air pollutant emitted directly from a source. 
  • A secondary pollutant is not directly emitted but forms when primary pollutants react in the atmosphere with other components
  • Example of primary pollutants →  Carbon monoxide(Emitted from a vehicle’s exhaust, nitrogen oxides and sulfur oxide etc.
  • Examples of a secondary pollutant → Ozone (Formed when hydrocarbons and nitrogen oxides (NOx) combine in the presence of sunlight), Acid rain (Formed when sulfur/nitrogen oxides react with rain water).
  • A secondary pollutant has a much shorter life in the atmosphere than a primary pollutant.

2. Which of the following is not a greenhouse gas ?

(a) Nitrogen
(b) Methane
(c) Nitrous oxide
(d) Carbon dioxide

Correct Answer – (a) Nitrogen

  • Nitrogen is not a Greenhouse gas.
  • It is not responsible for increasing the global temperature.

3. Photochemical smog does NOT consist of which among the following ?

(a) Sulfur oxides
(b) Tropospheric ozone
(c) Volatile organic compounds
(d) Nitrogen oxides

Correct Answer – (a) 1 only

  • Photochemical smog is the chemical reaction of sunlight, nitrogen oxides and volatile organic compounds in the atmosphere, which leads to the formation of ground-level ozone also called Tropospheric ozone.
  • Photochemical smog is most common in the summer.

4. Consider the following statements about fly ash:

1. It is a byproduct of burning coal in power plants.
2. It hardens when mixed with water.

Which of the above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer – (c) Both 1 and 2

  • Fly ash is a fine, powdery material that’s a byproduct of burning coal in power plants.
  • It hardens when mixed with water or an alkaline substance like lime. This makes it useful as a replacement for cement in concrete and other building materials. 
  • It is also used in road construction.

5. Coastal erosion is reduced by:

(1) Global warming induced sea level rise
(2) Presence of coral reefs
(3) Growth of mangroves near the seashore

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) All of the above

Correct Answer –  (a) 1 and 2 only

  • Global warming induced sea level rise increases coastal erosion.
  • Presence of coral reefs and growth of mangroves near the seashore help in controlling the coastal erosion.

6. Consider the following statements about Black carbon:

1. It is formed due to incomplete combustion of fossil fuels.
2. It is short-lived in the atmosphere in comparison to carbon dioxide.

Which of the above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer – (c) Both 1 and 2

  • Black Carbon (BC) is a short-lived pollutant that is a major cause of global warming.
  • It is formed due to incomplete combustion of fossil fuels, biofuel, and biomass.

7. Which one of the following is the most abundant greenhouse gas in the atmosphere ?

(a) Carbon dioxide
(b) Methane
(c) Ozone
(d) Water vapor

Correct Answer – (d) Water vapor

  • Water vapor (H2O) is the most abundant and most potent greenhouse gas in the atmosphere.
  • The amount of water vapor in the atmosphere is dependent on temperature. 
  • The warmer the surface, the greater the rate of evaporation of water from the surface → Increased evaporation leads to a greater concentration of water vapor in the lower atmosphere capable of absorbing more infrared radiation and increasing the temperature further.
  • Other major greenhouse gasses are: 
    • Carbon dioxide (CO2)
    • Nitrous oxide (N2O)
    • Methane (CH4)
    • Ozone (O3)

8. Climate change is caused by which among the following ?

(a) Increased greenhouse gasses
(b) Depletion of ozone layer
(c) Pollution
(d) All the above

Correct Answer –  (d) All the above

  • Increased greenhouse gasses, Ozone layer depletion, pollution, Cutting down forests are all responsible for climate change.

9. The Ozone layer restricts which among the following rays ?

(a) Visible light
(b) Infrared radiation
(c) X-rays and Gamma rays
(d) Ultraviolet radiation

Correct Answer – (d) Ultraviolet radiation

  • The Ozone layer restricts the harmful Ultraviolet radiation (UV rays).
  • Overexposure to UV rays can cause sunburn and skin cancer hence Ozone layer depletion is a major concern.

10. Which of the following gasses is released from rice fields in large quantities ?

(a) Carbon monoxide
(b) Methane
(c) Carbon dioxide
(d) Sulphur dioxide

Correct Answer – (b) Methane

  • Anaerobic decomposition of organic material in flooded rice fields produces large quantities of methane.
  • It is to be noted that Methane is one of the major greenhouse gasses.

11. Consider the following statements about Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs):

1. They remain in the environment for long periods.
2. They can accumulate in the fatty tissue of humans and wildlife.

Which of the above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer – (c) Both 1 and 2

  • Persistent Organic Pollutants(POPs) are chemical substances that have following properties:
    • They can remain in the environment for long periods.
    • They can accumulate in the fatty tissue of humans and wildlife.
    • They are less soluble in water.
    • They are harmful for human health and the environment.
  • The Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs) is a global treaty that aims to protect the environment from the harmful effects of POPs.

12. Which of the following are the results of global warming?

1. Melting of glaciers
2. Lowering down of sea level
3. Changes in weather condition

Which of the above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) All of the above

Correct Answer – (c) 1 and 3 only

  • Melting of glaciers, Changes in weather conditions and rise of sea level are some of the consequences of global warming.
  • Global warming does not cause lowering of sea level.

13. Consider the following statements about coral bleaching :

1. In coral bleaching, zooxanthellae leave coral tissues causing the coral to turn white.
2. This is caused due to pollution and sea temperature rise.

Which of the above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer – (c) Both 1 and 2

  • In coral bleaching, zooxanthellae leave coral tissues causing the coral to turn white.
  • This is caused due to pollution and sea temperature rise.
  • This indicates that corals are in stress and can die if not protected.

14. Which among the following is the major underground water pollutant ?

(a) Bacteria
(b) Algae
(c) Arsenic
(d) Viruses

Correct Answer –  (c) Arsenic

  • Arsenic is a toxic, naturally occurring, semi metallic element.
  • Arsenic pollution of groundwater is a global issue that can pose serious health risks.
  • Arsenic can enter groundwater through natural processes, such as weathering of rocks and minerals, or through human activities, such as industrial processes and coal-fired power plants.
  • Long-term exposure to arsenic in drinking water can lead to cancer, skin lesions, cardiovascular disease, diabetes, and other health problems.

15. Acid rain is caused due to air pollution by which among the following ?

(a) Carbon dioxide
(b) Carbon monoxide
(c) Methane
(d) Nitrous Oxide and Sulfur Dioxide

Correct Answer – (d) Nitrous Oxide and Sulfur Dioxide

  • Acid rain is caused mainly due to the presence of sulfur dioxide and nitrogen oxides in the atmosphere.
  • Nitrous Oxide and Sulfur Dioxide combine with water to produce sulfuric acid and nitric acid respectively.

Also Read in Environment and Ecology MCQs :

Environment and Biodiversity MCQs – 05 ( Environmental Conventions and Protocols )

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Environment and Bio-diversity

Environment and Biodiversity MCQs – 05 ( Environmental Conventions and Protocols )

Most important MCQs from the chapter – Environmental Conventions and Protocols MCQs for UPSC, State PSC and Other Examinations.

Chapterwise MCQs

Short Notes

Free Test Series

CivilsCracker Explains

1. Earth summit was held in which among the following places ?

(a) Paris
(b) Copenhagen
(c) Rio de Janeiro
(d) London

Correct Answer – (c) Rio de Janeiro

  • The Earth Summit or UN Conference on Environment and Development (UNCED) was held in Rio de Janeiro in June 1992. 
  • Key achievement of the 1992 conference was the establishment of the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC).
  • Earth summit  resulted in the following documents:
    • Rio Declaration on Environment and Development
    • Agenda 21
    • Forest Principles

2. Sustainable development requires judicious use of ?

(a) Natural resources
(b) Human resources
(c) Industrial resources
(d) Social resources

Correct Answer – (a) Natural resources

  • Sustainable development is the type of development that meets the needs of the present generation without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs.
  • The Sustainable Development Goals agenda was accepted by all members of the United Nations in 2012 at Rio De Janeiro.

3. Number of Sustainable Development Goals adopted by all the countries of the UN are ?

(a) 14
(b) 15
(c) 16
(d) 17

Correct Answer – (d) 17

 

  • The Sustainable Development Goals are a set of seventeen goals that all the countries which are members of the UN agreed to work upon for the better future of the world.
  • The 17 goals under the Sustainable Development Goals are as mentioned below:
    1. End poverty in all its forms everywhere
    2. End hunger, achieve food security and improved nutrition and promote sustainable agriculture
    3. Ensure healthy lives and promote well being for all at all stages
    4. Ensure inclusive and equitable quality education and promote lifelong learning opportunities for all
    5. Achieve gender equality and empower all women and girls
    6. Ensure availability and sustainable management of water and sanitation for all
    7. Ensure access to affordable, reliable, sustainable and modern energy for all
    8. Promote sustained, inclusive and sustainable economic growth, full and productive employment and decent work for all
    9. Built resilient infrastructure, promote inclusive and sustainable industrialisation and foster innovation
    10. Reduce inequalities within and among countries
    11. Make cities and human settlements inclusive, safe, resilient and sustainable
    12. Ensure sustainable consumption and production pattern
    13. Take urgent actions to combat climate change and its impact
    14. Conserve and sustainably use the oceans, seas and marine resources
    15. Protect, restore and promote sustainable use of terrestrial ecosystems, sustainably managed forests, combat desertification and halt and reverse land degradation and halt biodiversity loss
    16. Promote peaceful and inclusive societies for sustainable development, provide access to justice for all and build effective, accountable and inclusive institutions at all levels
    17. Strengthen the means of implementation and revitalize the global partnership for sustainable development

4. Consider the following statements about ‘Trade Related Analysis of Fauna and Flora in Commerce (TRAFFIC)’:

1. TRAFFIC is a bureau under the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP).
2. The mission of TRAFFIC is to ensure that trade in wild plants and animals does not threaten their existence.

Which of the above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer – (b) 2 only

  • TRAFFIC is a joint program of WWF and IUCN.
  • The mission of TRAFFIC is to ensure that trade in wild plants and animals does not threaten their existence.

5. The concept of carbon credit originated from which one of the following ?

(a) Kyoto protocol
(b) Earth summit
(c) Doha round
(d) Montreal Protocol

Correct Answer – (a) Kyoto protocol

  • The concept of Carbon Credit originated from the Kyoto Protocol. 
  • A carbon credit is a credit for greenhouse emissions reduced or removed from the atmosphere by an emission reduction project, which can be used by governments or industry to compensate for the emissions they generate elsewhere.
  • The Kyoto Protocol was adopted in Kyoto, Japan, on 11 December 1997 and entered into force on 16 February 2005.

6. Consider the following statements about Montreal Protocol:

1. The Montreal Protocol on substances that deplete the Ozone Layer was adopted in 1987.
2. The protocol gives provisions to reduce the production and consumption of Ozone Depleting Substances to protect the ozone layer.

Which of the above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer – (c) Both 1 and 2

  • The Vienna Convention for the Protection of the Ozone Layer formalized international cooperation on the issue of Ozone Layer depletion in 1985.
  • This resulted in the signing of the Montreal Protocol on Substances that Deplete the Ozone Layer in 1987. 
  • The protocol gives provisions to reduce the production and consumption of Ozone Depleting Substances to protect the ozone layer.
  • It introduced the concept of equal but differentiated responsibilities.

7. First United Nations treaty to be ratified by all countries in the world is which among the following ?

(a) Kyoto protocol
(b) Paris Agreement
(c) Doha round
(d) Montreal Protocol

Correct Answer – (d) Montreal Protocol

  • The Montreal Protocol is the first United Nations treaty which was ratified by all countries in the world.
  • It gives provisions to reduce the production and consumption of Ozone Depleting Substances to protect the ozone layer.

8. Consider the following statements about Kigali Agreement:

1. It was an Amendment to the Montreal Protocol.
2. It was signed to phase down the manufacture and usage of hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs).

Which of the above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer – (c) Both 1 and 2

  • The Kigali Agreement happened in Kigali, the capital of Rwanda in 2016.
  • It was aimed to phase down the manufacture and usage of hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs) to curb global warming.
  • After the adoption of Montreal Protocol, Use of chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) decreased and Hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs) were used as the replacement.
  • However, Due to the global warming effects of Hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs)(being a potent greenhouse gasses), its phase out was aimed in the Kigali Agreement.

9. Consider the following statements about Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC):

1. It was established in 1988.
2. It regularly publishes scientific assessment reports about climate change.

Which of the above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer – (c) Both 1 and 2

  • The Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC) is the international body for assessing and researching the science related to climate change.
  • It was set up in 1988 by the World Meteorological Organization (WMO) and United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP).
  • It regularly publishes scientific assessment reports about climate change.

10. Consider the following statements about Stockholm Convention:

1. It is related to Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs).
2. It was signed in Stockholm in 2001.

Which of the above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer – (c) Both 1 and 2

  • The Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs) is a global treaty that aims to protect the environment from the harmful effects of POPs.
  • Its aim  is to reduce/eliminate the production and use of POPs. 
  • It was signed in Stockholm in 2001 and came into effect in 2004. 
  • India ratified the Stockholm Convention in 2006.

11. Consider the following statements about Rotterdam Convention:

1. It aims to reduce the use of hazardous chemicals in international trade.
2. It is a legally binding environmental agreement.

Which of the above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer – (c) Both 1 and 2

  • Rotterdam Convention  a legally binding environmental agreement that aims to reduce the use of hazardous chemicals in international trade to save the environment and human life from their harmful effects.
  • The convention introduced a Prior Informed Consent(PIC) procedure to ensure that hazardous chemicals are not exported to countries that do not require them.
  • It was adopted in Rotterdam, Netherlands in 1998.
  • The secretariat of the convention is located in Geneva, Switzerland.

12. Consider the following statements about Basel Convention:

1. It aims to reduce the generation and movements of hazardous waste.
2. It is a legally binding environmental agreement.

Which of the above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer – (c) Both 1 and 2

  • The Basel Convention is a global environmental treaty that aims to protect the environment and human health from the harmful effects of hazardous waste.
  • Its secretariat is located in Geneva, Switzerland.
  • It is a legally binding environmental agreement. The member nations to the convention are required to have domestic legislation for prevention and illegal movement of such hazardous wastes.
  • India ratified the convention in 1992.

13. Consider the following statements about Convention on Biological Diversity:

1. It is a legally binding treaty to conserve biodiversity.
2. The CBD Secretariat is based in Geneva, Switzerland.

Which of the above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer – (a) 1 only

  • Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) is a legally binding treaty to conserve biological diversity.
  • It requires sustainable use of the components of environment and biodiversity.
  • The CBD Secretariat is based in Montreal, Canada.
  • India enacted Biological Diversity Act in 2002 for giving effect to the provisions of the Convention on BioDiversity.

14. Consider the following Pairs:

1. Nagoya Protocol → Protect biodiversity from the potential risks of living modified organisms(LMOs).
2. Cartagena Protocol → Fair and Equitable Sharing of Benefits arising from Biodiversity

Which of the above is/are correctly matched ?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer – (d) Neither 1 nor 2

  • Cartagena Protocol on Biosafety → Seeks to protect biodiversity from the potential risks of living modified organisms(LMOs). 
  • It came into force in 2003.
  • Nagoya Protocol → Requires fair and equitable sharing of benefits arising from biodiversity.
  • It came into force in 2014.

15. Consider the following statements about Minamata Convention:

1. It aims to protect the environment from the adverse effects of mercury and its compounds.
2. India has not ratified this Convention.

Which of the above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer – (a) 1 only

  • Minamata Convention is a treaty to protect human health and the environment from the adverse effects of mercury and its compounds.
  • Mercury can accumulate in aquatic organisms like fish and people who consume such fish have a high risk of developing the Minamata disease.
  • Minamata disease affects the central nervous system and can cause disabilities in hands, feet and eyes.
  • India has ratified this Convention.

Also Read in Environment and Ecology MCQs :

Environment and Biodiversity MCQs – 04 ( Nutrient cycles )

by
Environment and Bio-diversity

Environment and Biodiversity MCQs – 04 ( Nutrient cycles )

Most important MCQs from the chapter – Nutrient cycles  MCQs for UPSC, State PSC and Other Examinations.

Chapterwise MCQs

Short Notes

Free Test Series

CivilsCracker Explains

1. Solar radiation plays the most important role in which among the following ?

(a) Carbon cycle
(b) Oxygen cycle
(c) Water cycle
(d) Nitrogen cycle

Correct Answer –  (c) Water cycle

  • Solar radiation plays an important role in the water cycle. 
  • It helps in evaporation of water from various sources like ocean, rivers, ponds etc. 
  • It also facilitates melting of glaciers, Ice caps which contribute to the water cycle.

2. Carbon is present in the atmosphere, mainly in the form of ?

(a) Carbon dioxide
(b) Carbon monoxide
(c) Water
(d) Black Carbon

Correct Answer –  (a) Carbon dioxide

  • Carbon is present in the atmosphere, mainly in the form of carbon dioxide and Methane.
  • Carbon from the atmosphere moves to green plants by the process of photosynthesis.
  • When herbivore animals eat plants, Carbon enters the animal food chain.
  • By process of respiration and decomposition of dead organic matter, it returns back to the atmosphere.

3. Which of the following does not add carbon dioxide to the atmosphere ?

(a) Respiration
(b) Decay of organic matter
(c) Photosynthesis
(d) Volcanic eruptions

Correct Answer –  (c) Photosynthesis

  • Photosynthesis does not add carbon dioxide to the atmosphere. 
  • Carbon from the atmosphere moves to green plants by the process of photosynthesis. Hence it reduces the amount of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere.
  • Respiration, Decay of organic matter and Volcanic eruptions add carbon dioxide to the atmosphere.

4. Consider the following statements about Nitrogen:

1. Nitrogen is the most abundant gas in the Earth’s atmosphere.
2. Atmospheric Nitrogen can be used directly by most living organisms.

Select the correct statement(s) using the codes given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer – (a) 1 only

  • Nitrogen is the most abundant gas in the Earth’s atmosphere, making up to 78% of the atmospheric air.
  • However, Atmospheric Nitrogen can not be used directly by most living organisms.
  • Nitrogen needs to be converted to ammonia, nitrites or nitrates, before it can be used by plants. This process is called Nitrogen Fixation.

5. Consider the following statements about Nitrogen Fixation:

1. Certain microorganisms are capable of fixing atmospheric nitrogen into usable form which can be used by plants.
2. Rhizobium is a nitrogen-fixing bacteria.

Select the correct statement(s) using the codes given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer – (c) Both 1 and 2

  • Atmospheric Nitrogen needs to be converted to ammonia, nitrites or nitrates, before it can be used by plants. 
  • Certain microorganisms are capable of fixing atmospheric nitrogen into usable form which can be used by plants.
  •  Azotobacter, Rhizobium are a few examples of nitrogen-fixing bacteria.

6. Which of the following bacteria is able to convert the Nitrogen from Nitrite to Nitrate ?

(a) Azotobacter
(b) Rhizobium
(c) Nitrobacter
(d) Plasmodium

Correct Answer –  (c) Nitrobacter

  • Nitrobacter is able to convert the Nitrogen from Nitrite to Nitrate which is used by many plants.
  • This process is called nitrification.
  • It is to be noted here that nitrification plays an important role in the removal of ammonia from municipal wastewater.

7. Which of the following bacteria forms a symbiotic nitrogen-fixing association with roots of legumes ?

(a) Azotobacter
(b) Rhizobium
(c) Nitrobacter
(d) Plasmodium

Correct Answer –  (b) Rhizobium 

  • Rhizobium bacteria form a symbiotic nitrogen-fixing association with roots of legumes plants.
  • Rhizobium is a vital bacteria  as it provides nitrogen to agricultural soils including those in arid regions.
  • It increases soil productivity and soil fertility.

8. Consider the following statements about Denitrification:

1. In denitrification, nitrates/nitrites are converted into elemental nitrogen.
2. Pseudomonas is a denitrifying bacteria.

Select the correct statement(s) using the codes given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer – (c) Both 1 and 2

  • In the process of denitrification, nitrates/nitrites are converted into elemental nitrogen which is released back to the atmosphere.
  • Pseudomonas and Thiobacillus are examples of denitrifying bacteria.

9. Consider the following statements about Phosphorus:

1. Phosphorus is usually found in the form of phosphates.
2. It is a common ingredient in fertilizers.

Select the correct statement(s) using the codes given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer – (c) Both 1 and 2

  • Phosphorus is usually found in the form of phosphates.
  • It is found in Sedimentary rocks and minerals.
  • It is a common ingredient in fertilizers.
  • It also plays a major role in the formation of DNA.

10. Which among the following processes add sulfur to the atmosphere ?

(a) In the process of decomposition
(b) Volcanic eruptions
(c) Combustion of fossil fuels
(d) All of the above

Correct Answer –  (d) All of the above

  • Sulfur is added to the atmosphere in volcanic eruptions, combustion of fossil fuels from and from the gasses released during decomposition.
  • In the atmosphere, it exists in the form hydrogen sulfide (H2S) and sulfur dioxide (SO2).

11. Consider the following statements about Acid Rain:

1. It contains Sulfuric acid (H2SO4).
2. It is good for aquatic life in the oceans.

Select the correct statement(s) using the codes given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer – (a) 1 only

  • When SO2 (Sulphur Dioxide) and NOx (Nitrogen Oxide) combine with rain water and oxygen in the atmosphere, they form sulfuric acid (H2SO4) and nitric acid (HNO3) and cause Acid rain.
  • Effects of Acid Rain:
    • Increases acidity of Oceans, rivers and lakes which affects the survival of certain species.
    • Deterioration and discoloration of physical infrastructure(Example → Taj Mahal turning yellow due to sulfuric acid reactions).
    • Skin diseases in humans

12. In the Nitrogen Cycle, soil nitrates are transformed back into free nitrogen by which among the following ?

(a) Nitrifying bacteria
(b) Denitrifying bacteria
(c) Ammonifying bacteria
(d) None of the Above

Correct Answer – (b) Denitrifying bacteria

  • In the process of denitrification, nitrates/nitrites are converted into elemental nitrogen which is released back to the atmosphere.
  • It is carried out by denitrifying bacteria.
  • Pseudomonas and Thiobacillus are examples of denitrifying bacteria.

13. Which among the following is the driving force of all the ecosystems on the earth ?

(a) Solar energy
(b) Producer
(c) Carbon
(d) Biomass

Correct Answer – (a) Solar energy 

  • Solar energy is the main driving force of all the ecosystems on the earth. 
  • It is this energy that producers use for photosynthesis. 
  • Consumers are dependent upon producers for their food requirement.

14. Consider the following statements:

1. Ecological productivity decreases from the equator towards the poles.
2. Insolation increases from the equator towards the poles.

Select the correct statement(s) using the codes given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer – (a) 1 only

  •  The rate at which biomass is generated in an ecosystem is called ecological productivity. 
  • Ecological productivity decreases from the equator towards the poles.
  • Insolation decreases from the equator towards the poles.
  • As solar energy is the main driving force of all the ecosystems, with the decrease of Insolation from the equator towards the poles, ecological productivity also decreases.

15. Consider the following statements about carbon sink:

1. A carbon sink is a carbon pool that has the capability to take more carbon from the atmosphere than it releases.
2. Forests and Soils are examples of carbon sinks.

Select the correct statement(s) using the codes given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer – (c) Both 1 and 2

  • A carbon sink is a carbon pool that has the capability to take more carbon from the atmosphere than it releases.
  • They are an important part of the natural carbon cycle.
  • They help in climate change mitigation.
  • Examples of carbon sinks → Soils, Forests, Ocean, Wetlands like mangroves etc.

Also Read in Environment and Ecology MCQs :

Environment and Biodiversity MCQs – 03 ( Ecosystems and Biomes )

by
Environment and Bio-diversity

Environment and Biodiversity MCQs – 03 ( Ecosystems and Biomes )

Most important MCQs from the chapter – Ecosystems and Biomes MCQs for UPSC, State PSC and Other Examinations.

Chapterwise MCQs

Short Notes

Free Test Series

CivilsCracker Explains

1. The transitional zone between two distinct ecosystems is known as ?

(a) Ecotype
(b) Ecade
(c) Ecosphere
(d) Ecotone

Correct Answer –  (d) Ecotone

  • An ecotone is a transitional area between diverse ecosystems. 
  • It has some of the characteristics of each bordering ecosystem and also often contains species which are unique to ecotone and not found in the overlapping communities.
  • some examples of ecotones:
  • Mangrove forests → The transition zone between marine and terrestrial ecosystems.
  • Estuaries →  The transition zone between freshwater and marine ecosystems.
  • Grasslands →  The transition zone between desert and forest ecosystems.

2. The speed of decomposition of organic matter in soil is determined by which of these major factors ?

(1) Soil organisms
(2) Temperature conditions
(3) Moisture conditions
(4) Quality of the organic matter

Select the correct answer using the codes below:

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Correct Answer –  (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

  • All the given factors play a role in determining the speed of decomposition of organic matter in soil.
  • High temperature and high moisture aid the process of decomposition.
  • Soil organisms, including microorganisms, use soil organic matter as food. As they break down the organic matter, the nutrients such as Nitrogen and Phosphorus are released into the soil in forms that plants can use.

3. Consider the following statements about the Mangrove forests:

1. They have high biodiversity.
2. They mainly grow in coastal intertidal zones.

Select the correct statement(s) using the codes given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer – (c) Both 1 and 2

  • Mangrove forests are made up of trees and shrubs that can grow in low-oxygen, salty soil. 
  • They are generally found in coastal intertidal zones.
  • Mangrove forests stabilize the coastline, reducing erosion from waves, tides, and storm surges.
  • Mangrove forests enjoy high biodiversity. These are home to a variety of plants and animals, including some species that are unique to these forests.
  • In India, They are mainly found in the Andaman and Nicobar Islands and the deltas of Mahanadi, the Godavari and the Krishna.

4. Consider the following statements about the Estuaries:

1. They are among the least productive ecosystems in the world
2. Some estuaries form an ecotone of freshwater and salty seawater.

Select the correct statement(s) using the codes given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer – (b) 2 only

  • Estuaries are the wetlands that are usually found where rivers meet the sea.
  • Estuaries are home to unique plant and animal communities that have adapted to brackish water – a mixture of fresh water draining from the land and salty seawater.
  • Estuaries are the examples of ecotone. An ecotone is a transition area between two biomes where two communities meet, integrate and thrive together.
  • Estuaries are among the most productive ecosystems in the world.

5. Which of the following is an example of a Biome ?

(a) Tundra region
(b) Lake Pangong
(c) Himalayan forests
(d) Ganges River

Correct Answer –  (a) Tundra region

  • Biome is a large geographical area with a distinct climate and a community of flora and fauna.
  • Biomes can include multiple ecosystems.
  • Some of the major biomes of the world are forests, grasslands, deserts and tundra biomes.

6. Kelp forests are underwater areas with a high density of which among the following ?

(a) Brown algae seaweed
(b) Coral reefs
(c) Mangroves
(d) Tropical Rainforests

Correct Answer – (a) Brown algae seaweed

  • Kelps are large brown algae seaweeds. 
  • They grow in shallow oceans. 
  • They are recognized as one of the most productive and dynamic ecosystems on Earth.

7. Mosses and lichens together are most likely to be found in which among the following climatic zones of the world ?

(a) Tropical
(b) Temperate
(c) Tundra
(d) Desert

Correct Answer –  (c) Tundra

  • Tundra is the global biome that consists of the treeless regions in the north (Arctic tundra) and high mountain (alpine tundra) areas of other continents.
  • It has a very short growing season due to extreme cold throughout the year.
  • The vegetation of the tundra mainly consists of grasses, dwarf shrubs, mosses, and lichens.

8. Consider the following statements about the Corals:

1. They protect coastlines from storms and erosion.
2. They provide nursery grounds for economically important fish species.

Which of the above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer – (c) Both 1 and 2

  • Coral reefs are formed by hard corals, which grow in warm, shallow, and clean water. 
  • Coral ecosystems has a huge economic significance as they are:
    • Source of food for millions
    • Protect coastlines from storms and erosion
    • Provide habitat and nursery grounds for economically important fish species
    • Provide income source to local economies from fishing
    • Used for recreation and tourism

9. The Great Barrier Reef is located in ?

(a) Pacific Ocean
(b) Atlantic Ocean
(c) Indian Ocean
(d) Mediterranean Sea

Correct Answer – (a) Pacific Ocean

  • The Great Barrier Reef is the world’s largest coral reef complex located in the Pacific Ocean off the coast of Australia.
  • It is also a natural World Heritage Site.
  • The distribution of coral reefs is determined by factors such as water’s temperature and salinity.

10. Consider the following statements about the wetlands:

1. They are among the most productive ecosystems in the world.
2. They protect shores from wave action and reduce the impacts of floods/Tsunamis.

Select the correct statement(s) using the codes given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer – (c) Both 1 and 2

  • The wetlands are among the most productive ecosystems of the world comparable to rain forests and coral reefs.
  • They have an immense variety of species of microbes, plants, insects, amphibians, reptiles, birds, fish and mammals.
  • They protect shores from wave action and reduce the impacts of floods/Tsunamis.
  • They keep water pollution in check by absorbing pollutants and improving water quality.

11. Which one of the following is the most stable ecosystem ?

(a) Desert
(b) Mountain
(c) Ocean
(d) Forest

Correct Answer – (c) Ocean

  • The Ocean is considered as the most sustainable and stable ecosystem.
  • The ocean’s huge volume means that small changes do not affect the stability of the ecosystem.

12. The concept of ecological niche was first introduced by ?

(a) C.C. Park
(b) E.P. Odum
(c) J. Grinnell
(d) G.E. Hutchinson

Correct Answer – (c) J. Grinnell

  • Joseph Grinnell was the first person to introduce the concept of ecological niche.

13. Consider the following statements about the Niche of an organism :

1. A Niche is unique for an organism.
2. While habitat is a geographical place, a niche is the relationship of an organism with the components of an ecosystem

Select the correct statement(s) using the codes given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer – (c) Both 1 and 2

  • An ecological niche refers to the interrelationship of an organism with the biotic and abiotic factor affecting it.
  • A Niche is unique for an organism in a given ecosystem/habitat.
  • Please note that  a habitat may consist of many niches as it supports different organisms at the same time.

14. What is the primary source of food for organisms in the marine ecosystem ?

(a) Phytoplankton
(b) Zooplankton
(c) Seaweed
(d) Grasses

Correct Answer – (a) Phytoplankton

  • Phytoplanktons are main producers in the marine ecosystem and thus these are the primary source of food for marine life.

15. Consider the following statements about the ecosystem of Savanna Grasslands:

1. Main vegetation is tall grass and short trees.
2. Trees usually have broad trunks.

Select the correct statement(s) using the codes given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer – (c) Both 1 and 2

  • Savanna grassland is a type of grassland with scattered trees and a continuous layer of tall grasses.
  • It experiences long periods of drought, hence Trees found here usually have broad trunks and animals with long legs for migration.

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Environment and Biodiversity MCQs – 02 ( Ecological succession and Forests )

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Environment and Biodiversity MCQs – 02 ( Ecological succession and Forests )

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1. The orderly sequence of change in the vegetation of an area over time is described as which among the following ?

(a) Biomes
(b) Ecological succession
(c) Trophic level
(d) Climax

Correct Answer –  (b) Succession

  • The orderly sequence of change in the vegetation of an area over time is described as succession or ecological succession. 
  • It is a process by which an ecological community undergoes orderly and predictable changes following a disturbance or the initial colonization of a new habitat. 
  • The process involves a progressive series of changes with one community replacing another until a stable, mature community develops.

2. Consider the following statements:

1. First plant to colonize an area is called the pioneer community.
2. The final stage of succession is called the climax community.

Which of the above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer – (c) Both 1 and 2

  • First plant to colonize an area is called the pioneer community.
  • The final stage of succession is called the climax community.
  • A climax community is stable, mature and long-lasting.

3. Consider the following statements:

1. Primary succession takes place over where no community has existed previously.
2. The pioneer species disappear as the habitat conditions change.

Which of the above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer – (c) Both 1 and 2

  • Primary succession takes place over where no community has existed previously.
  • In primary succession, the new site is first colonized by pioneer species that are often microbes, lichens and mosses.
  • The pioneer species disappear as the habitat conditions change and it leads to development of more complex and stable species.

4. Consider the following statements Secondary succession:

1. It is the sequential development of biotic communities after the complete or partial destruction of the existing community.
2. Unlike in the primary succession, the secondary succession starts on a well-developed soil.

Which of the above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer – (c) Both 1 and 2

  • Secondary succession is the sequential development of biotic communities after the complete or partial destruction of the existing community.
  • It occurs when a mature community is destroyed by natural events such as floods, droughts, fires, or storms or by human interventions such as deforestation, agriculture, overgrazing, etc.
  • Unlike in the primary succession, the secondary succession starts on a well-developed soil.

5. Consider the following statements:

1. Allogenic succession occurs when biotic factors or organisms themselves drive the succession.
2. Autogenic succession occurs when abiotic factors,or external forces drive the succession.

Which of the above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer – (d) Neither 1 nor 2

  • Autogenic succession occurs when biotic factors or organisms themselves drive the succession. 
  • Example → Death and decay of existing species, Immigration of new species.
  • Allogenic succession occurs when abiotic factors,or external forces drive the succession. 
  • Example → Volcanic eruptions, flooding, drought, earthquakes etc.

6. Teak wood is found in which among the following forests ?

(a) Tropical deciduous forests
(b) Tropical evergreen forests
(c) Montane forests
(d) Temperate evergreen forests

Correct Answer –  (a) Tropical deciduous forests

  • Tropical deciduous forests are characterized by trees that shed their leaves during a particular time of the year, usually in response to a dry season.
  • Teak trees are the most dominant species of trees found in these forests.
  • Bamboos, sal, shisham, sandalwood, khair, arjun, mulberry are some of the other commercially important species found here.

7. Rhododendrons are naturally found in which among the following areas ?

(a) Himalayas
(b) Central India
(c) South India
(d) None of the above

Correct Answer –  (a) Himalayas

  • Rhododendrons are evergreen or deciduous shrubs or small trees, with woody stems and broad, leathery leaves.
  • In India, they are naturally found on the foothills of the Himalayas.
  • It is the state flower of J&K, Himachal Pradesh, Nagaland.
  • It is the state tree of Sikkim and Uttarakhand.
  • Most species of Rhododendron have brightly coloured flowers which bloom from late winter through to early summer.

8. Hardwood trees like rosewood, ebony, mahogany are generally found in ?

(a) Tropical evergreen forests
(b) Tropical deciduous forests
(c) Temperate Evergreen Forests
(d) Mediterranean Vegetation

Correct Answer –  (a) Tropical evergreen forests

  • The trees like Mahogany and Rosewood are found in the tropical evergreen forest. 
  • They are also known as the tropical rainforest.
  • In India, tropical evergreen forests can be found in the Western Ghats, the Jaintia and Khasi mountain ranges, and states like Kerala and Karnataka.

9. Mediterranean trees have thick barks and wax coated leaves. These features help them to perform which among the following ?

(a) Reduce transpiration
(b) Increase rate of water flow from roots to shoots
(c) Cut down the need for photosynthesis
(d) Increase the area of the leaves to step up glucose intake

Correct Answer –  (a) Reduce transpiration

  • Transpiration is the loss of water from the leaves through the stomata.
  • If transpiration is high due to large pores of the leaves, the water demand for the plant is likely to be high, which would make the survival of the plant difficult in the summers of the Mediterranean region. 
  • Waxy leaves and thick barks reduce transpiration and thus reduce the water requirements and increase the chance of survival.

10. The process by which an organism maintains a constant internal environment to survive and function despite changes in the external environment is called as ?

(a) Metamorphism
(b) Homeostasis
(c) Autophagy
(d) Mitosis

Correct Answer – (b) Homeostasis 

  • The process by which an organism maintains a constant internal environment to survive and function despite changes in the external environment is called Homeostasis.
  • Autophagy is a process in which a cell breaks down and recycles old, damaged, cell parts.
  • Mitosis is a process in which a cell’s nucleus splits into two which leads to formation of two identical daughter cells.

11. Consider the following statements about the Temperate Deciduous Forests:

1. They are found in mid and higher latitudes.
2. Oak, ash and beech trees are generally found here.

Which of the above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer – (c) Both 1 and 2

  • A temperate deciduous forest is a biome characterized by broadleaf trees that shed their leaves in the dry season and regrow them in the spring. 
  • They are found in mid-latitude areas, between the tropics and the polar regions.
  • Common trees found here are oak, ash, beech etc.

12. Deforestation affects which among the following soil properties ?

(1) Top soil content
(2) Microbial activity
(3) Nutrient content
(4) Water holding capacity

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) All of the above

Correct Answer –  (d) All of the above

  • After deforestation, soil becomes exposed and rainwater can easily leach away nutrients in run-off water. 
  • This causes the fertility of soil to decline.
  • Removal of the top layer of the soil during deforestation exposes the lower, hard layer which is less fertile.
  • Microbial activity in soil decreases due to the loss of forest.
  • Due to leaching, Nutrient content in the soil decreases.
  • Due to loss of tree roots, Water holding capacity of the soil also decreases.

13. Forest fires are major environmental concern as they can lead to:

1. Loss of valuable timber resources
2. Loss of wildlife habitat
3. Global warming

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) All of the above

Correct Answer –  (d) All of the above

  • Forest fires are major environmental concern as they can lead to following consequences:
    • Loss of valuable timber resources
    • Loss of large carbon sinks which can lead to an  increase in CO2 in the atmosphere
    • Degradation of soil
    • Loss of biodiversity and can lead to extinction of plants and animals
    • Loss of wildlife habitat
    • Global warming
    • Loss of livelihood for the tribals
    • Health problems

14. Consider the following statements about the ‘Sundarbans’:

1. They host a large population of mangroves.
2. They are under threat due to freshwater flows from Brahmaputra and Meghna rivers.

Which of the above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer – (a) 1 only

  • The Sundarbans hosts the largest mangrove forests in the world.
  • It is located on the delta of the Ganges, Brahmaputra and Meghna rivers on the Bay of Bengal.
  • It is a UNESCO World Heritage site and also  ‘Wetland of International Importance’ under the Ramsar Convention.
  • It is also famous for its Royal Bengal Tigers.
  • Sundarbans are under threat due Scarcity of freshwater flows from Brahmaputra and Meghna rivers.
  • Pollution from various sources is also impacting the delicate ecosystem of the Sundarbans.

15. If a tropical rainforest is removed, it does not regenerate quickly as compared to a tropical deciduous forest. This is because of the following reasons ?

(a) The soil of rainforest is deficient in nutrients
(b) The trees in a rainforest have poor viability
(c) The rain forest species are naturally slow-growing
(d) Invasive species invade the fertile soil of rainforest

Correct Answer – (a) The soil of rainforest is deficient in nutrients

  • The soil of the rainforest is deficient in nutrients .
  • This is because of the heavy rains that occur almost every day.
  • Rainwater washes away the nutrients(Called leaching of nutrients) which reduces the fertility of soil.
  • Hence, Regeneration of new vegetation is very slow(takes decades).

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Soils of Bihar | Geography of Bihar Notes

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Soils of Bihar

Bihar is located on the fertile alluvial plain of Gangetic Valley which extends from the foothills of the Himalayas in the north to a few kilometers south of the river Ganga. 

Due to the Variation in relief, precipitation, vegetation and parent rocks, different types of solid are found in Bihar.

Let’s study about each soil in Bihar in detail.

Types of soils in Bihar: 

Soils in Bihar can be broadly classified into seven categories, which are distributed across the state in different places. 

Piedmont Swamp Soil:

  • Found in the North-Western parts of West Champaran district (in the foothills of Himalayas) in Bihar.
  • Texture → Mostly clayey.
  • Rich in organic matter.
  • Major crops cultivated → Paddy.

Terai Soil:

  • Terai soil in Bihar is found along the 8-10 km belt of India Nepal border from West Champaran to Kishanganj. 
  • Swampy in nature.
  • Contains sufficient amount of Nitrogen and humus content.
  • Lag in phosphorus.
  • Grey to yellow in colour.
  • Major crops cultivated →  Wheat, Paddy, sugarcane, jute etc.

Alluvial Soil:

  • Found in almost 50% of the total geographical area of the state.
  • Formed by deposition of alluvium brought by different rivers.
  • Alluvial Soils are of two types:
  • Khadar Soil:
    • Newer Alluvium brought by rivers every year. 
    • Mainly found in North Bihar along the basins of Koshi, Ganga, Gandak, Burhi Gandak and other rivers. 
    • Major crops cultivated →   Rice, wheat, sugarcane, jute, tobacco, vegetables, maize and oilseeds.
  • Bhangar Soil: 
    • Older alluvium.
    • Found in the upper parts of flood basins of rivers.
    • Also known as Karail-Keval locally.
    • Clayey in nature.
    • Major crops cultivated →  Paddy, wheat, sugarcane, wheat etc.
  • Both types of alluvial soils are found in Bihar.

Balasundari Soil:

  • Found mainly in Kishanganj, Purnea, Saharsa, Darbhanga, Muzaffarpur and Southern parts of West Champaran district.
  • It has a high amount of lime which makes it alkaline in nature
  • Generally infertile
  • Coarse cereals, maize, tobacco and plantation crops like litchi, banana can be cultivated

Tal Soil:

  • Found in an 8-10 km strip along the southern bank of the Ganga river.
  • Texture → Fine to coarse.
  • Grayish in colour.
  • Have similar features as Khadar soil (Newer Alluvial Soil) does have. 
  • Major crops cultivated → Rabi crops like wheat, barley, mustard, gram, peas, linseed, and sesame.

Balthar Soil:

  • Found from Kaimur to Banka in an 8-15 km wide strip along Chota Nagpur Plateau and Rajmahal Hills.
  • Texture → Sandy(Hence low water holding capacity), Yellowish-red in colour. 
  • Has a good amount of iron and limestone.
  • Lacks in Nitrogen and humus.
  • Acidic in nature.
  • Major crops cultivated → Pulses and Coarse cereals like Jowar, Bajra etc.

Laterite Soil:

  • Generally found in the hilly regions of Bihar.
  • Mainly formed as a result of high leaching.
  • Leaching occurs when excess water removes water-soluble nutrients out of the soil.
  • Rich in iron and aluminum.
  • Deficient in Lime and silica(as they are leached away from the soil).
  • Less fertile.
  • It is infertile but if irrigated it can be fertile.
  • It hardens quickly when exposed to air thus useful for making bricks.

Red and Yellow Soil:

  • Formed from the disintegration of igneous and metamorphosed rocks. 
  • Less fertile.
  • Only suitable for coarse crops and pulses. 
  • Found in the eastern and southern parts of Bihar like Banka, Gaya, Aurangabad, Jamui and Munger.

 

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Rivers of Bihar | Geography of Bihar Notes

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Rivers of Bihar

The Ganga River System

  • Bihar is divided into two parts by the Ganga river, which passes through almost the middle of Bihar. 
  • The Ganga originates from Gangotri glacier in Uttarkashi district in Uttarakhand 
  • Enters Bihar at Chausa (Buxar district)
  • forms the boundary of Bhojpur and Saran districts
  • Mahatma Gandhi Setu is built on the Ganga river.
  • The area lying north of Ganga is called North Bihar whereas the area lying south of Ganga river is called south Bihar.

Rivers in Bihar can be classified into two major categories which are as following:

  • Rivers in North Bihar
  • Rivers in South Bihar

Let’s study the rivers of Bihar in detail.

Rivers in North-Bihar:

  • Rivers in North Bihar are generally perennial which flows all year.
  • Rivers of North Bihar originate in Himalayas and flow south and South-East direction and finally merge with Ganga.
  • Important rivers of North Bihar are:
    • Ghagra (Saryu):
      • Originates in Nampa region of Nepal. 
      • After flowing in UP, enters Bihar in Siwan
      • Merges into the Ganga near Chhapra (Bihar). 
    • Gandak:
      • Originates from the central Himalayan region in Nepal, where it is also known as Narayani.
      • Enters into Bihar at Valmiki Nagar.
      • Passes through West & East Champaran , Gopalganj, Muzaffarpur, Saran and Vaishali 
      • Merges with Ganga at Pahleja Ghat (near Patna).
      • After the construction of Triveni Canal, Gandak has become an important source of irrigation in Bihar.
    • Burhi Gandak:
      • Originates at Someshwar Hills
      • Enters in Bihar from Chautarwa Chaur in West Champaran
      • Merges with Ganga at Khagaria.
    • Bagmati:
      • Originates in the Shivpuri hills in Nepal 
      • Enters Bihar in Sitamarhi.
      • Pass through Muzaffarpur, Darbhanga, and Samastipur.
      • Merges with the Kosi River at Badlaghat.
      • Main tributaries → Lalbakeya and Lakhendei
    • Kamla:
      • Originates from the Mahabharata range in Nepal
      • Enters Bihar in Madhubani district. 
      • Kamala Barrage has been constructed on this river near Jainagar town.
      • Main tributaries → Dhauri, Soni, Balan and Trisula
    • Kosi:
      • Originates from the Tibet region in the form of multiple channels.
      • Enters Bihar in Supaul
      • Merges into Ganga in Khagaria and Purnea
      • Main tributaries → Kamala, Bagmati and Burhi Gandak
      • Major cause of flood in Bihar, also known as ‘Sorrow of Bihar’.
    • Mahananda:
      • Originates in Sikkim
      • Enters into Bihar in Purnia.
      • Main tributaries → Balason, Ratwa, and Kankai
      • Merges with Ganga in Bangladesh

Rivers in South Bihar: 

  • Rivers in South Bihar are non-perennial which flows during rainy season mainly and remain almost dry in summer season.
  • Rivers in South Bihar mainly originate from the plateau region of Jharkhand (Chotanagpur and Rajmahal Hills) and Madhya Pradesh. 
  • These rivers also merge with Ganga flowing generally in North and North-East direction.
  • Important rivers in South Bihar are given below:-
    • Son:
      • Most important river of South Bihar.
      • Originates from Amarkantak Hills in Madhya Pradesh and passes through Jharkhand and enters into Bihar between Rohtas and Aurangabad districts
      • Merges with Ganga near Danapur (Patna). 
      • It is the biggest and longest South Bank tributary of the Ganga river. 
      • Main tributaries → Rihand and the North Koel
    • Punpun:
      • Second most important river of South Bihar.
      • Originates from Chota Nagpur Plateau region of Palamu district in Jharkhand and enters into Bihar in Aurangabad
      • Merges with Ganga at Fatuah near Patna.
    • Phalgu:
      • Originates from Chota Nagpur Plateau region in Jharkhand
      • Enters into Bihar in Gaya and at Bodhgaya
      • Passes through Jehanabad, and Nalanda
      • Merges with Ganga in Tal region (Patna).
      • Major tributary → Mohana 
      • Has religious significance for both Hindus and Buddhists. 
      • Famous Mahabodhi Temple and Vishnupad Mandir are located near the bank of Phalgu river. 
      • In Hindu sacred texts, it has been called Niranjana.
    • Karmanasa:
      • Originates from Kaimur Range in Kaimur district (Bihar).
      • Passes through Varanasi and Ghazipur districts of Uttar Pradesh and again enters Bihar at Chausa Buxar.
      • Merges with Ganga at Buxar.
      • Forms a boundary between Uttar Pradesh and Bihar 
      • According to Hindu mythology, it is considered as an unholy river.
    • Kiul:
      • Originates from Tisri Hill range in Giridih district of Jharkhand.
      • Enters into Bihar through a gorge in Saptahari hill in Jamui district.
      • Major tributary → Harohar river
      • Merges with Ganga near Surajgarh (Lakhisarai)
    • Ajay:
      • Originates from Chakai block of Jamui (Bihar)
      • Flows through Jharkhand and West Bengal
      • Merges with Bhagirathi river near Katwa Town (West Bengal)

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Physical Features of Bihar | Geography of Bihar Notes

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Physical Features of Bihar

Bihar is located in the eastern part of India. The state is surrounded by Nepal in the north, West Bengal in the east, Uttar Pradesh in the west and Jharkhand in the south.

Important physical features of Bihar:

  • Bihar is the 13th largest state of Indialin terms of geographical area.
  • It constitutes 2.86 % of the total land of India.
  • It is a landlocked state. 
  • Geographical area → 94,163 sq km.
  • Bihar is entirely in the Northern hemisphere with following Geographic coordinates:
    • Latitude  → 24°20’10” and 27°31’15” N
    • Longitude → 83°19’50” and 88°17’40″E 
  • Height →  53 m height above sea level
  • Length of geographical areas of Bihar: 
    • From West to East → 783 km 
    • From North to South → 345 km 

On the basis of physical features, Bihar has been divided into three parts:

1. Shivalik Ranges 

  • This region is a part of the Shiwalik range of Himalayan mountains.
  • Located in the Northern part of West Champaran district.
  • Sparsely populated
  • Inhabited by Tharu Tribe, an indigenous ethnic group who speak Tharu languages
  • This region is further subdivided into three parts:
    • Ramnagar Doon → Southernmost part of the Himalayan Terai Region, covering an area of 214 sq kilometers.
    • Someshwar Ranges  →   Extension of the Shivalik Ranges in Bihar, Someshwar fort is the highest point in Bihar. It lies between  the Triveni Canal in the west to Bhikhnathori in the east. Someshwar, Bhikhnathori and Marawat Pass are the major mountain passes in this region.
    • Harha Valley → Lies between Someshwar and Ramnagar ranges.

2. The Bihar Plains

  • Spread between the Northern mountains and Southern plateau region.
  • Spread from Nepal in the north to the ChotaNagpur Plateau in Bihar’s south.
  • Formed by the alluvial soil deposited by Ganga and its tributaries. 
  • Its topography in the North is smooth while in the South, the hills of Gaya, Rajgir and Kharagpur are found.
  • This plain is subdivided into two parts:
  • The Northern Plains of Bihar
    • Formed by rivers like Saryu, Gandak, Burhi Gandak, Bagmati, Kamla-Balan, Kosi and Mahananda and their tributaries with their alluvial deposits. 
    • It has a steeper slope than the southern part.
    • Doab formation → It is the area of land between two rivers. Major Doabs in this region are Ghaghra-Gandak Doab, Gandak-Koshi Doab, Koshi-Mahananda Doab etc. 
    • Chaurs formation → Chaurs are small freshwater lakes in the Gangetic plain of Bihar, India. They are basically oxbow lakes or abandoned channels of the rivers. Mostly found in Samastipur, Begusarai, Saharsa and Katihar districts.
    • Diara formation  → These are fluvial landforms formed when a river finds a hard bedrock in the way of their flow, which lead to formations of two branches of the river and again both branches aligned with each other. Hence a standalone land surface is formed between both the branches of the river. This are highly fertile due to good availability of alluvial soil and water.
    • High water table due to rocky and porous soil.
  • The Southern Plains of Bihar
    • Smaller in area than the North Bihar plain. 
    • Triangular in shape with a wider West and narrower East part. 
    • Many hills are Found → Hills of Gaya, Rajgir, Bihar Sharif, Sheikhpura, Jamalpur and Kharagpur hills.
    • Flooded during the rainy season
    • Main river →  Son
    • Tal formation → It is lowland swamp area that is generally flooded with water for few months of the year. Major Tal is Mokama Tal.

3. Southern Plateau Region

  • The plateau area is a narrow belt spreading between Kaimur districts in the West to Banka in the east.
  • many hills are made of Batholith (Big mass of igneous rock formed beneath the Earth’s surface due to solidification of magma).
  • Made of hard rocks such as gneiss, schist and granite.
  • Rich in minerals

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CivilsCracker Explains

1. Which of the following is not a vector quantity ? (BPSC – 2001)

(a) Displacement
(b) Velocity
(c) Force
(d) Volume

Correct Answer –  (d) Volume

  • A vector quantity is determined by both magnitude and direction. 
  • A scalar quantity can only be determined by its magnitude.
  • Thus displacement, velocity and force are the examples of vector quantity while volume is a scalar quantity.

2. Which physical quantity is represented by the ratio of momentum and velocity of the body? (BPSC – 2001)

(a) Velocity
(b) Acceleration
(c) Mass
(d) Force

Correct Answer – (c) Mass

  • Momentum is a vector quantity that is the product of Mass and the Velocity of an object or particle.
  • Momentum = Mass × Velocity
  • So, Mass = Momentum / Velocity

3. Force is the product of ? (BPSC – 2001)

(a) Mass and velocity
(b)Mass and acceleration
(c) Weight and velocity
(d) Weight and acceleration

Correct Answer –  (b)Mass and acceleration

  • Force is the product of Mass and Acceleration of an object on which force is applied.
  • Force = Mass x Acceleration
  • F = M * A

4. Spherical form of raindrop is due to which among the following ? (BPSC – 1994)

(a) Density of liquid
(b) Surface tension
(c) Atmospheric pressure
(d) Gravitational force

Correct Answer –  (b) Surface tension

  • Surface tension is the tendency of liquid surfaces at rest to shrink into the minimum surface area possible.
  • The shape of a drop of rain is affected by the surface tension, which tries to give it the shape for which the surface area is minimum for the given volume. 
  • As the spherical shape has the minimum surface area, rain drops acquire spherical shape.

5. At which temperature density of water is maximum? (BPSC – 1998)

(a) 4°C
(b) 0°C
(c) -4°C
(d) -8°C

Correct Answer –  (a) 4°C

  • The mass of any substance on heating remains the same however its volume increases. Thus, it leads to a decrease in  density.
  • However, water exhibits an anomalous behavior.
  •  When water is heated from 0°C to 4°C, its volume decreases and thus density increases. Hence, at 4°C, the volume of water is minimum and density of water is maximum.
  • This increase in volume of water when cooled from 4°C to 0°C is known as Anomalous expansion of water.

6. The visible range of solar radiation is ? (BPSC – 2011)

(a) 100-400 nm
(b) 400-700 nm
(c) -740-10000 nm
(d) None of the above

Correct Answer –   (b) 400-700 nm

  • The electromagnetic spectrum is divided into three ranges:
    • Ultraviolet → Below 400 nm
    • Visible  → 400 to 700 nm 
    • Infrared → Above 700 nm

7. The nature of radiation of light is ? (BPSC – 1998)

(a) Like wave
(b) Like particle
(c) Like both of wave and particle
(d) Like neither of wave nor of particle

 

Correct Answer –  (c) Like both of wave and particle

  • The light has a dual nature.
  • Sometimes it behaves only as waves and sometimes as particles. 
  • Initially light was considered only as a wave however after the studies of  black body radiation and the photoelectric effect which proved the particle nature of light, it was concluded that light has dual nature.

8. The time taken by sunlight to reach up to the surface of earth is approximately ? (BPSC – 1997)

(a) 4.2 minutes
(b) 4.8 sec
(c) 8.5 minutes
(d) 3.6 hrs

Correct Answer –  (c) 8.5 minutes

  • Sunlight takes about 8 minutes and 20 seconds to reach Earth’s surface.

9. Sky looks blue because ? (BPSC – 1994)

(a) Blue color in the sunlight is more than other colours
(b) Short waves are scattered more than long waves by atmosphere
(c) Blue colour is more absorbing to eyes
(d) Atmosphere absorbs long wavelength more than short wavelength

Correct Answer –  (b) Short waves are scattered more than long waves by atmosphere

  • Sunlight is made up of a spectrum of colors which includes red, yellow, green, blue, and violet. 
  • Each color has a different wavelength, with blue and violet having the shortest wavelengths.
  • When sunlight passes through the Earth’s atmosphere, the air molecules scatter the light in all directions. In this process, Blue light is scattered the most as it has a shorter wavelength.
  • When we look at the sky, it is the scattered light which enters the eyes. As blue is the most scattered light, Sky looks blue.

10. Sea seems blue due to ? (BPSC – 1995)

(a) Excess deepness
(b) Reflection of sky and scattering of light by water molecules
(c) Blue colour of water
(d) Upper layer of water

Correct Answer –  (b) Reflection of sky and scattering of light by water molecules

  • The sea looks blue for the same reason the sky looks blue that is due to the refraction and scattering of light rays.

11. For shaving, one uses which among the following ? (BPSC – 1999)

(a) Concave mirror
(c) Convex mirror
(b) Plain mirror
(d) None of these

Correct Answer –  (a) Concave mirror

  • A concave mirror of a large focal length is used for shaving as it produces a magnified and erect image of the face, which makes it easier to shave.

12. Light is made of seven colours. What is the method of separating the colours ? (BPSC – 2005)

(a) The colours can be separated by a prism
(b) The colours can be separated by a filter
(c) The colours can be separated by plants
(d) The colours cannot be separated

Correct Answer –  (a) The colours can be separated by a prism

  • The white colour is made up of seven colours.
  • When it passes through a prism, different colours of light are refracted by a different amount because of different wavelengths and appear separately.

13. In which direction the rainbow is seen at 12 noon ? (BPSC – 1999)

(a) In the West
(b) In the South
(c) In the East
(d) It cannot be seen

Correct Answer –  (d) It cannot be seen

  • Rainbows are an optical phenomenon that are caused because of sunlight passing through raindrops and dispersing into a spectrum of colors.
  • However, Rainbows are not visible at 12 noon as the sun is directly overhead.
  • For the rainbow phenomena to occur, the sun needs to be less than 42° above the horizon.

14. To remove the defect of long sightedness one uses ?

(a) Concave lens
(b) Convex mirror
(c) Convex lens
(d) Concave mirror

Correct Answer –  (c) Convex lens

  • Long-sightedness:
      • It is also known as hyperopia or hypermetropia.
      • It is an eye condition in which distant objects are usually seen clearly, but close objects are not visible clearly.
      • To remove this vision problem, convex lenses are used.
  • Short-sightedness:
    • It is also known as myopia.
    • It is an eye condition in which close objects are usually seen clearly, but distant objects are not visible clearly.
    • To remove this vision problem, concave lenses are used.

15. Reading glasses are made from which type of lenses ?(BPSC – 2000)

(a) Concave
(b) Convex
(c) Plain
(d) None of these

Correct Answer –  (b) Convex

  • A convex lens, also called a converging lens, is used in reading glasses.
  • It is also used to remove the defect of long-sightedness.

16. In winter you touch a log of wood and a rod of iron, you will feel the rod of iron is colder because ? (BPSC – 1996)

(a) The heat of rod of iron is less than the heat of log of wood
(b) In comparison to wood, iron is good conductor of heat
(c) In comparison to wood, iron is bad conductor of heat
(d) The rod of iron is heavier than the log of wood

Correct Answer – (b) In comparison to wood, iron is good conductor of heat

  • In comparison to wood, iron is a good conductor of heat. 
  • When both the metal and the wood are at the same temperature, heat will be lost from iron faster hence it will feel colder as compared to wood.

17. By opening the door of the refrigerator kept in the room ? (BPSC – 1994)

(a) You can cool the room to some degree
(b) You can cool the room to the temperature of refrigerator
(c) You can warm the room a little
(d) You can neither cool nor warm the room

Correct Answer –  (c) You can warm the room a little

  • If the door of a refrigerator is left open in a room, the temperature will start to rise inside the refrigerator. 
  • To reduce the temperature, the thermostat will start which will  try to cool it back down. 
  • Due to this running of the thermostat motor, heat will be generated in the room which will result in a warmer room.

18. Cosmic rays ? (BPSC -2015)

(a) Are charged particles
(b) Are uncharged particles
(c) Can be charged as well as uncharged
(d) None of the above

Correct Answer –  (a) Are charged particles

  • Cosmic rays are immensely high-energy particles, mainly originating outside the solar system.
  • Cosmic rays can come from the sun, other stars, supernovae, and even distant galaxies.

19. What is the distance between two successive crests or successive troughs called ? (BPSC – 2002)

(a) Amplitude
(b) Wavelength
(c) Frequency
(d) None of these

Correct Answer – (b) Wavelength

  • The distance between two successive crests or successive troughs is called Wavelength of a wave.
  • The number of waves that pass a given point in one second is called the frequency of a wave.
  • The distance between the center line and the top of a crest or the bottom of a trough is called the amplitude of a wave.

20. Which among the following rays are used in the diagnosis of intestinal diseases ?

(a) X-rays
(c) Beta-rays
(b) Alpha-rays
(d) Gamma-rays

Correct Answer – (a) X-rays

  • X-rays are a type of electromagnetic radiation that have the capacity to pass through most objects, including the human body.
  • Hence, they are used in the diagnosis of intestinal diseases to create images of the body inside.

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CivilsCracker Explains

1. Area of India is 2.4% of the total area of the world but its (BPSC – 1994)

(a) Population is 16% of world population
(b) Population is 17% of world population
(c) Population is 18% of world population
(d) Population is 28% of world population

Correct Answer – (b) Population is 17% of world population

  • As per census 201, the area of India is 3287263 square km. which is approximately 2.4% of the total land area of the world, whereas its total population is 17.5% of the total population of the world.
  • India is seventh-largest in the world.

2. The expansion of India is between ? (BPSC – 1994)

(a) 37° 17′ North and 8º 06′ South
(b) 37° 17′ North and 8° 04′ South
(c) 37° 06’ North and 8º 04′ South
(d) None of the above

Correct Answer –  Ans. (d).

  • India lies between 8°4′ North to 37°6′ North latitudes.
  • It lies between 68° 7′ East to 97° 25′ East longitudes.

3. How much is the difference between Indian Standard Time (I.S.T.) and Greenwich Mean Time (G.M.T.) ? (BPSC – 2001)

(a) 4 hours 30 Minutes
(b) 5 hours 30 Minutes
(c) 3 hours 30 Minutes
(d) 4 hours 00 Minutes

Correct Answer – (b) 5 hours 30 Minutes

  • Indian Standard Time is calculated on the basis of 82.5°E longitude.
  • This Meridian passes through Naini, Allahabad in the state of Uttar Pradesh. 
  • The Indian Standard Time is ahead of Greenwich Mean Time by 5 hours and 30 minutes.
  • The meridian passes through the following states of India: 
    • Uttar Pradesh
    • Madhya Pradesh
    • Chhattisgarh 
    • Odisha
    • Andhra Pradesh.

4. The foothills region of Himalayas is called ? (BPSC – 1999).

(a) Trans-Himalayas
(b) Shiwalik
(c) Greater Himalayas
(d) Aravali

Correct Answer – (b) Shiwalik

  • The foothills region of Himalaya is called Shiwalik. These are the outermost range of the Himalayas. 
  • The Himalayas are divided into three primary ranges that extend from north to south:
    • Himadri/Greater Himalayas – The northernmost range which is home to most of the world’s tallest peaks which include Mount Everest and Kanchenjunga
    • Himachal/Lesser Himalaya –  Located south of Greater Himalayas, Home to many famous hill stations such as Shimla, Nainital, and Manali etc.
    • Siwaliks –  Southernmost range of Himalayas, Formed by sediments carried down by rivers from the northern Himalayan peaks.

5. Shiwaliks were formed in ? (BPSC – 1997)

(a) Eozoic
(c) Mesozoic
(b) Paleozoic
(d) Cenozoic

Correct Answer – (d) Cenozoic

  • Shiwaliks or outer Himalayas were formed approximately 5-1.7 million years ago in the Pliocene Era in Cenozoic period.

6. Which of the following hills are found where the Eastern Ghats and the Western Ghats meet ? (BPSC – 1999, 2016)

(a) Annamalai Hills
(b) Cardamom Hills
(c) Nilgiri Hills
(d) Shevaroy Hills

Correct Answer – (c) Nilgiri Hills

  • Nilgiri Hills are located at the junction of Western Ghats and Eastern Ghats.
  • Doddabetta is the highest mountain in the Nilgiri Hills having a height of 2,637 meters.

7. Western Ghats in Maharashtra and Karnataka is known as ? (BPSC – 2000)

(a) Nilgiri mountain
(b) Sahyadri
(c) Deccan plateau
(d) None of these

 

Correct Answer – (b) Sahyadri

  • Western Ghats is known as Sahyadri in Maharashtra, Goa & Karnataka. 
  • The Western Ghats has a high altitudinal variation and the average elevation is around 1200 meters.
  • The highest peak in the Western Ghats is Anamudi, which is located in Kerala.

8. Highest mountain peak located in India is ? (BPSC – 1997)

(a) Anamudi
(b) Kanchanjungha
(c) Nanda Devi
(d) Mount Everest

Correct Answer –  (b) Kanchanjungha

  • Kanchenjunga is a Himalayan mountain peak that lies between Sikkim, India, and Nepal. 
  • It is the third highest peak in the world with an elevation of 8,586 m. 
  • It is the highest peak in India.

9. Chotanagpur Plateau ? (BPSC – 1995)

(a) Is rich in minerals and coal
(b) Is a pitfall
(c) Is a foothill
(d) Is a fold mountain

Correct Answer –  (a) Is a front sloping

  • Chota Nagpur plateau is located mainly in Jharkhand as well as adjacent parts of Odisha, West Bengal. Bihar and Chhattisgarh.
  • The plateau is composed of Precambrian rocks.
  • Through its center, from west to east, lies the coal-bearing Damodar River valley.
  • The Chotanagpur Plateau consists of a series of plateaus at different levels of elevation.
  • The Chotanagpur Plateau is rich in minerals and coal.
  • The Damodar valley has vast coal reserves, and the Hazaribagh region is one of the main sources of mica in the world. 
  • Other minerals that are found here are copper, limestone, bauxite, iron ore, asbestos, and apatite.

10. Lakshadeep island is situated ? (BPSC – 1992)

(a) In South West India
(b) In South India
(c) In South East India
(d) In East India near West Bengal

Correct Answer –  (a) In South West India

  • Lakshadweep is a group of islands in the Arabian sea. 
  •  It is an archipelago of 36 islands.
  • These are scattered between 8ºN – 12°N and 71°E – 74°E. 
  • The largest island of Lakshadweep is Andrott.
  • Minicoy is the second largest island separated from other islands by the 9° Channel. 
  • Kavaratti is the capital of Lakshadweep.

11. Islands group Lakshadweep was formed by the ? (BPSC – 1994)

(a) Accumulation of coral reef
(b) Accumulation of volcano substances
(c) Soil sedimentation
(d) None of the above-mentioned is true

Correct Answer – (a) Accumulation of coral reef

  • Lakshadweep is a group of islands that was built mainly by coral deposits. 
  • Coral reefs are underwater ecosystems made up of colonies of corals that are held together by calcium carbonate. 
  • They are home to a large variety of marine life and are found in shallow waters around the world.
  • They are rich in biodiversity.

12. Vidarbha is a regional name in India and it is a part of ? (BPSC – 1996)

(a) Gujrat
(b) Maharashtra
(c) Madhya Pradesh
(d) Orissa

Correct Answer – (b) Maharashtra

  • Vidarbha is north-eastern region of the State of Maharashtra.
  • This region comprises Nagpur, Amravati, Chandrapur, Akola, Vardha, Buldhana, Yavatmal, Bhandara, Gondia, Washim and Gadchiroli district of Maharashtra.

13. The Pat region is located in ? (BPSC – 2000)

(a) Bihar
(b) Jharkhand
(c) Madhya Pradesh
(d) Meghalaya

Correct Answer – (b) Jharkhand

  • ‘Pat Region’ is located in Chota Nagpur region. 
  • It is a flat-topped plateau with an average elevation of 1,000 meters above sea level. 
  • It is made up of many sub-plateaus sometimes having small peaks in between which are known as pats or patlands.
  • Maximum part of Chota Nagpur plateau lies in the State of Jharkhand.

14. The three largest States of India in order of area are ? (BPSC – 2011)

(a) Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra
(b) Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, Maharashtra
(c) Maharashtra, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh
(d) Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Rajasthan

Correct Answer – (a) Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra

  • Total area of India is 3,287,263 sq. km. which is 2.4% of the total area of the world.
  • The largest States of India in order of area are:
    • Rajasthan (3,42, 239 sq. km) 
    • Madhya Pradesh (3,08,252 sq. km)
    • Maharashtra (3,07,713 sq. km )

15. Manas is the tributary of which among the following rivers ? (BPSC – 2000)

(a) Godavari
(c) Krishna
(b) Mahanadi
(d) Brahamputra

Correct Answer – (d) Brahamputra

  • The Manas River is a tributary of the Brahmaputra River.
  • It is the largest right bank tributary of Brahmaputra.

16. In India, the third largest state according to population is ? (BPSC – 2008)

(a) Maharashtra
(b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) Karnataka
(d) Bihar

Correct Answer – (d) Bihar

  • Bihar is the 3rd largest State of India by population. 
  • As per 2011 census,  Its population is 104,099,452.

17. Consider the following statements : (BPSC – 2001)

1. Capital of Gujrat is Gandhinagar.
2. Capital of Rajasthan is Jaipur.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 & 2
(d) None of the above

Correct Answer – (c) Both 1 & 2

  • Gandhinagar is the capital of the state of Gujarat.
  • Capital city of Rajasthan in Jaipur.
  • Jaipur is also known as Pink City.

18. The Dravidian races are mainly confirmed at which of the following parts of India ? (BPSC – 2016)

(a) South India
(b) North-Western India
(c) North-Eastern India
(d) North India
(e) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct Answer – (a) South India

  • The Dravidian races are mainly confined to South India. 
  • This race is related to the Dravidian language family that includes Tamil, Kannad, Malayalam, Telugu etc. 
  • It is to be noted here that the idea of a Dravidian race was created by the British as part of their divide-and-rule policy in India. According to many scholars, Dravidian is just a geographical division, not racial difference.

19. Which amongst the following states has no identified tribal communities ? (BPSC – 2015)

(a) Maharashtra
(b) Chhattisgarh
(c) Haryana
(d) Karnataka

Correct Answer – (c) Haryana

  • Among the given options, Haryana has no identified tribal communities. 
  • According to the 2011 census, 8.6% of the total population of India are tribal communities with the maximum population concentrated in the states of Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra and Odisha.

20. Gaddis are inhabitants of ? (BPSC – 2000)

(a) Madhya Pradesh
(b) Himachal Pradesh
(c) Arunachal Pradesh
(d) Meghalaya

Correct Answer – (b) Himachal Pradesh

  • People belonging to Gaddi tribe are mostly found in Kangra and Chamba districts of Himachal Pradesh. 
  • They stay in the foothills of Dhauladhar Range(Western Himalayas).

21. Bodos are inhabitants of ? (BPSC – 1994)

(a) Garo hills
(b) Santhal Pargana
(c) Amazon Basin
(d) Madhya Pradesh

Correct Answer –  (a) Garo hills

  • Bodos are an ethnic and linguistic group which mainly resides in Garo hill of Meghalaya. 
  • They speak Tibeto-Burman languages.
  • They are also the largest minority group in Assam.

22. Where is the Bhil Tribe found ? (BPSC – 2008).

(a) Assam
(b) Jharkhand
(c) West Bengal
(d) Maharashtra

Correct Answer – (d) Maharashtra

  • People of Bhil Tribe are mostly found in States like Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Gujrat, Chhattisgarh and Rajasthan.
  • Famous Ghoomar dance is a traditional folk dance of Bhil Tribe in Rajasthan.

23. In India, ‘Yarlung Zangbo River’ is known as ? (BPSC – 2015)

(a) Ganga
(b) Indus
(c) Brahmaputra
(d) Mahanadi

Correct Answer –  (c) Brahmaputra

  • Yarlung Zangbo is known as Brahmaputra river in India. 
  • It originates near lake Mansarovar.

24. Mansarovar lake in Tibet is the source of which among the following rivers ?

(a) Brahmaputra
(c) Indus
(b) Satluj
(d) All the above

Correct Answer –  (d) All the above

  • The source of river Brahmaputra, Indus and Sutlej, is near Mansarovar Lake in Tibet.

25. At which of the following towns the Alaknanda and the Bhagirathi combine to form Ríver Ganga ? (BPSC -2016)

(a) Haridwar
(b) Rishikesh
(c) Rudraprayag
(d) Devprayag
(e) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct Answer – (d) Devprayag

  • The Panch Prayag are located in the Garhwal region of Uttarakhand.
  • They are located at the confluence of different rivers.
  • They are:
    • Vishnuprayag – Confluence of Alaknanda River and Dhauliganga River
    • Nandaprayag – Confluence of Alaknanda and Nandakini rivers
    • Karnaprayag – Confluence of Alaknanda and Pindar rivers 
    • Rudraprayag – Confluence of Alaknanda and Mandakini rivers 
    • Devprayag – Confluence of Alaknanda and Bhagirathi rivers

26. The longest flowing river in India is ? (BPSC – 1995)

(a) Mahanadi
(b) Godawari
(c) Ganga
(d) Narmada

Correct Answer –  (c) Ganga

  • Ganga river is the longest flowing river in India.
  • Length of the rivers mentioned in the option are given below:
    • Ganga river – 2525 kms
    • Godavari river – 1465 kms
    • Narmada river – 1312 kms
    • Mahanadi river – 858 kms

27. The river which flows through a fault is ? (BPSC – 2000)

(a) Narmada
(b) Brahmaputra
(c) Ganga
(d) Krishna

Correct Answer –  (a) Narmada

  • Originating at the Amarkantak Hill, Narmada river flows westwards and passes through a rift valley between Vindhya and Satpura ranges.
  • It falls into the Gulf of Cambay into the Arabian Sea. 
  • Another west flowing peninsular river is Tapti. It originates in Betul district of Madhya Pradesh, passes through a rift valley and falls into the Arabian Sea.

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