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Environment and Biodiversity Mock Test

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Environment and Biodiversity Mock Test

Environment and Biodiversity Free Mock Test for UPSC Prelims, State PSC and Other Examinations.

This free test series has been created for the benefit of aspirants so that they can score good marks in the examination. This test contains basic as well as advanced questions of Environment and Biodiversity.

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Environment and Biodiversity Mock Test

 

Syllabus - Environment and Biodiversity

Number Of Questions - 25

Time Duration - 30 Minutes

1 / 25

Q . Which among the following is not an indicator species ?

2 / 25

Q . Consider the following statements:

1. Eutrophication of a water body involves Inflow of nutrients.
2. It is helpful for aquatic organisms.

Select the correct statement(s) using the codes given below:

3 / 25

Q . Pyramid of energy is always :

4 / 25

Q . Consider the following statements:

1. Ecotone is a junction between two or more diverse ecosystems.
2. An ecotone has a higher biodiversity than the individual ecosystems.

Select the correct statement(s) using the codes given below:

5 / 25

Q. Consider the following statements:

1. A keystone species is a species that has a disproportionately large effect on its ecosystem.
2. Only herbivores can be a keystone species.

Select the correct statement(s) using the codes given below:

6 / 25

Q. Which among the following is not an example of ecotones ?

7 / 25

Q. Following ecosystems have been arranged on the basis of the amount of net primary productivity.

Select the correct sequence with decreasing primary productivity:

8 / 25

Q. Which among the following is a non-biodegradable material ?

9 / 25

Q. The largest population of species is found in ?

10 / 25

Q. Consider the following statements about the Invasive alien species.

1. They rapidly reproduce and grow in an ecosystem.
2. They can survive on a wide range of environmental conditions.

Select the correct statement(s) using the codes given below:

11 / 25

Q. Humus is least in which of the following soils ?

12 / 25

Q. Sandalwood is an example of ?

13 / 25

Q. Consider the following statements about the Sacred groves:

1. They are pristine stretches of forests categorized as National parks.
2. They are left untouched by the local tribals as any interference with them is banned by the local community

Which of the above is/are correct ?

14 / 25

Q. Consider the following statements about the Corals:

1. Corals are marine invertebrate animals.
2. Hard corals are not found at either of the poles of the earth.

Which of the above is/are correct ?

15 / 25

Q. Which ocean has the most coral reefs in the world ?

16 / 25

Q. Consider the following statements about the Phytoplanktons:

1. Phytoplankton have chlorophyll to capture sunlight and perform photosynthesis.
2. Cyanobacteria is an example of Phytoplankton.

Which of the above is/are correct ?

17 / 25

Q. The Ramsar Convention is related to the conservation of ?

18 / 25

Q. Which among the following Indian Ramsar sites is part of the Montreux record ?

19 / 25

Q. Consider the following statements about Nitrogen dioxide(NO2):

1. Excess NO2 in air is harmful to photosynthesis in plants.
2. It can cause acute respiratory diseases.

Which of the above is/are correct ?

20 / 25

Q. Consider the following statements about Smog:

1. Vehicular emissions are one of the major causes of Smog.
2. Cold temperatures aid in the formation of Smog.

Which of the above is/are correct ?

21 / 25

Q. Consider the following statements about Deforestation:

1. Deforestation can cause fertility of soil to decline.
2. After Deforestation, Soil can be leached easily due to heavy rain.

Which of the above is/are correct ?

22 / 25

Q. Presence of which among the following are harmful for the living organisms in water ?

(1) High concentration of nutrients
(2) Higher temperature
(3) Phytoplanktons

Select the correct answer using the codes below:

23 / 25

Q. Consider the following statements about fly ash:

1. It is a byproduct of burning coal.
2. It contains high amounts of Plutonium.

Which of the above is/are correct ?

24 / 25

Q. Consider the following statements about E-Waste:

1. It contains toxic chemicals including metals such as lead, cadmium, mercury, and nickel.
2. Unsafe disposal of e-waste involves significant risk to health.

Which of the above is/are correct ?

25 / 25

Q. Consider the following statements about Black carbon:

1. It is a type of aerosol.
2. If deposited on snow, it could accelerate the melting of snow.

Which of the above is/are correct ?

Your score is

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1. In the interim government formed in 1946, the Vice-President of the Executive Council was: (UPSC – 1995)

(a) Jawaharlal Nehru
(b) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
(c) C. Rajagopalachari
(d) Dr. Rajendra Prasad

Correct Answer – (a) Jawaharlal Nehru 

  • On 2nd September 1946, the Interim Government of India was formed from the Constituent Assembly to oversee the transition of India from a British colony to an independent republic.
  • In these elections, the Indian National Congress (INC) won around 69% of the seats and had a majority. 
  • The Congress Party won 208 seats and the Muslim League won 73 seats.
  • Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru became its Vice President.
  • C. Rajagopalachari was the Head of the Department of Education and Dr. Rajendra Prasad was the Head of the Department of Food & Agriculture in the Executive Council.

2. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched? (UPSC – 1995)

(a) Battle of Buxar → Mir Jafar vs. Clive
(b) Battle of Wandiwash → French vs. East India Company
(c) Battle of Chillianwala → Dalhousie vs. Marathas
(d) Battle of Kharda → Nizam vs. East India Company

Correct Answer – (b) Battle of Wandiwash → French vs. East India Company

  • The Battle of Wandiwash(1760) →  French were finally defeated by English.
  • Battle of Buxar (1764) – English under Munro defeated Mir Qasim, Shuja-ud-daula and Shah Alam II
  • The Battle of Chillianwala(1849) → Fought during Second Anglo-Sikh war
  • Battle of Kharda(1795) →  Took place between the Nizamate of Hyderabad and the Maratha Confederacy.

3. The word Adivasi was used for the first time to refer to the tribal people by: (UPSC – 1995)

(a) Mahatma Gandhi
(b) Thakkar Bappa
(c) Jyotiba Phule
(d) B.R. Ambedkar

Correct Answer – (b) Thakkar Bappa

  • The word Adivasi was used for the first time to refer to the tribal people by Thakkar Bappa in the 1930s.
  • He was instrumental in the upliftment of India’s Adivasi communities.

4. His principal forte was social and religious reform. He relied upon legislation to do away with social ills and work unceasingly for the eradication of child marriage and the purdah system. To encourage consideration of social problems on a national scale, he inaugurated the Indian National Social Conference, which for many years met for its annual session alongside the Indian National Congress. The reference in this passage is to: (UPSC – 1996)

(a) Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar
(b) Behramji Merwanji Malabari
(c) Mahadev Govind Ranade
(d) B.R. Ambedkar

Correct Answer – (c) Mahadev Govind Ranade

  • Mahadev Govind Ranade was a scholar, social reformer and author.
  • He worked for social reform in the areas of child marriage, widow remarriage, and women’s rights. 
  • He was one of the founding members of the Indian National Congress.

5. Who among the following was the first European to initiate the policy of taking part in the quarrels of Indian princes with a view to acquire territories? (UPSC – 1996)

(a) Clive
(b) Dupleix
(c) Albuquerque
(d) Warren Hastings

Correct Answer – (b) Dupleix

  • Dupleix was an ambitious governor of French east India company. 
  • His ambition was to acquire vast territories in India, and for this purpose he entered into relations with the native princes.
  • His goal was to establish a French empire in India.

6. Consider the following landmarks in Indian education: (UPSC – 1996)

1. Hindu College, Calcutta
2. University of Calcutta
3. Adam’s Report
4. Wood’s Despatch

The correct chronological order of these landmarks is:
(a) 1, 3, 4, 2
(b) 1, 4, 3, 2
(c) 3, 1,4, 2
(d) 3, 2, 4, 1

Correct Answer – (a) 1, 3, 4, 2 

  • Hindu College, Calcutta → 1817
  • Adam’s Report → 1835-38
  • Wood’s Despatch → 1854
  • University of Calcutta → 1858

7. Who among the following was associated with suppression of thugs? (UPSC – 1997)

(a) General Henry Prendergast
(b) Captain Sleeman
(c) Alexander Burres
(d) Captain Robert Pemberton

Correct Answer – (b) Captain Sleeman

  • Captain William Sleeman was appointed by Lord William Bentick (1828-35) to suppress the thugs during the 1830s.

8. The educated middle class in India: (UPSC – 1998)

(a) Opposed the revolt of 1857
(b) Supported the revolt of 1857
(c) Remained neutral to the revolt of 1857
(d) Fought against native rulers

Correct Answer – (c) Remained neutral to the revolt of 1857

  • The educated middle class of India remained neutral to the revolt of 1857.
  • The revolt did not spread to all parts of the country as South and West India remained largely unaffected by the revolt. 
  • Many Indian rulers even helped the British in suppressing the revolt.

9. What is the correct chronological sequence of the following ?

1. Wood’s Education Despatch
2. Macaulay’s minutes on education
3. The Sargent Education Report
4. Hunter Commission on education

Select the correct answer using the code given below: (UPSC – 1997)

(a) 2, 1, 4, 3
(b) 2, 1, 3, 4
(c) 1, 2, 4, 3
(d) 4, 3, 1, 3

Correct Answer – (a) 2, 1, 4, 3 

  • Macaulay’s Minute on Education → 1835
  • Wood’s Despatch also known as the Magna Carta of English education →  1854
  • Hunter Commission also known as Indian Education Commission → 1883
  • Sargent Education Report → 1944

10. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists: (UPSC – 1997)

List-I                                List-II
A. Moplah revolt           1. Kerala
B. Pabna revolt             2. Bihar
C. Eka movement         3. Bengal
D. Birsa Munda revolt  4. Awadh

Codes:

(a) A – 1; B – 3; C – 4; D – 2
(b) A – 2; B – 3; C – 4; D – 1
(c) A – 1; B – 2; C – 3; D – 4
(d) A – 3; B – 4; C – 1; D – 2

Correct Answer –  (a) A – 1; B – 3; C – 4; D – 2

  • Pabna revolt happened  in East Bengal in 1873.
  • Birsa Munda revolted in 1899 in Ranchi, Bihar (But now part of Jharkhand).
  • Moplah revolt happened in Malabar in Kerala in 1921.
  • The Eka movement happened in 1921-22 in UP.

11. The paintings of Abanindranath Tagore are classified as: (UPSC – 1999)

(a) Realistic
(b) Socialistic
(c) Revivalistic
(d) Impressionistic

Correct Answer – (c) Revivalistic 

  • Abanindranath Tagore was a nephew of Rabindranath Tagore.
  • He is considered as the leader of the Revivalist Movement in the field of modern Indian painting in Bengal.
  • He is known for his famous painting of Bharat Mata.

12. There was no independent development of industries in India during British rule because of the: (UPSC – 1999)

(a) Absence of heavy industries
(b) Scarcity of foreign capital
(c) Scarcity of natural resources
(d) Preference of the rich to invest in land

Correct Answer – (a) Absence of heavy industries

  • During British rule, the Britishers sourced the raw materials from India which were exported to England for its industries to consume. 
  • India would then be used also as a market to sell off finished goods. 
  • Hence, There was no independent development of industries in India.

13. The first feature film (talkie) to be produced in India was: (UPSC – 1999)

(a) Hatimtai
(b) Alam Ara
(c) Pundalik
(d) Raja Harishchandra

Correct Answer – (b) Alam Ara

  • Alam Ara was the first Indian sound film produced in India.
  • It was directed by Ardeshir Irani.

14. The Governor-General who followed a spirited “Forward” policy towards Afghanistan was: (UPSC – 1999)

(a) Minto
(b) Dufferin
(c) Elgin
(d) Lytton

Correct Answer – (d) Lytton

  • Lord Lytton was the Governor-General of India who followed a forward policy towards Afghanistan.
  • He served as the Viceroy of India from 1876 to 1880.

15. At a time when empires in Europe were crumbling before the might of Napoleon, which one of the following Governors-General kept the British flag flying high in India ? (UPSC – 1999)

(a) Warren Hastings
(b) Lord Cornwallis
(c) Lord Wellesley
(d) Lord Hastings

Correct Answer – (d) Lord Hastings

  • It was Lord Hastings who kept the British flag flying high in India when empires in Europe were crumbling before the might of Napoleon.
  • He served as the Governor General of India from 1813 to 1823.

16.

Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists : (UPSC – 1999)

List-I (Books)                                                        List-II (Authors)
A. The First Indian War of Independence      1. Rabindranath Tagore
B. Anand Math                                                    2. Sri Aurobindo
C. Life Divine                                                       3. Bankim Chandra Chatterji
D. Sadhana                                                           4. Vinayak Damodar Savarkar

Codes:

(a) A – 4; B – 3; C – 2; D – 1
(b) A – 3; B – 4; C – 1; D – 2
(c) A – 4; B – 3; C – 1; D – 2
(d) A – 3; B – 4; C – 2; D – 1

Correct Answer – (a) A – 4; B – 3; C – 2; D – 1

  • The Life Divine → Sri Aurobindo
  • Sadhana →  Collection of essays by Rabindranath Tagore
  • The First Indian War of Independence → Vinayak Damodar Savarkar
  • Anand Math → Bankim Chandra Chatterji

17. Consider the following events: (UPSC – 1999)

1. Indigo Revolt
2. Santhal Rebellion
3. Deccan Riot
4. Mutiny of the Sepoys

The correct chronological sequence of these events is:

(a) 4, 2, 1, 3
(b) 4, 2, 3, 1
(c) 2, 4, 3, 1
(d) 2, 4, 1, 3

Correct Answer – (d) 2, 4, 1, 3

  • Santhal rebellion → 1856
  • Mutiny of the Sepoys → 1857
  • Indigo revolt → 1860
  • Deccan riot → 1875

18. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists: (UPSC – 1999)

List-I (Year)                           List-II (Event)
A. 1775                                 1. First Anglo-Burmese War
B. 1780                                 2. First Anglo-Afghan War
C. 1824                                 3. First Anglo-Maratha War
D. 1838                                 4. Second Anglo-Mysore War

Codes:

(a) A – 4; B – 3; C – 2; D – 1
(b) A – 4; B – 3; C – 1; D – 2
(c) A – 3; B – 4; C – 1; D – 2
(d) A – 3; B – 4; C – 2; D – 1

Correct Answer – (c) A – 3; B – 4; C – 1; D – 2

  • First Anglo-Burmese War → 1826 (Ended with Treaty of Yandabo)
  • First Anglo-Afghan War → 1838 
  • First Anglo-Maratha War – 1782 (Ended with Treaty of Salbai)
  • Second Anglo-Mysore → 1780 to 1784 (Ended with Treaty of Mangalore)

19. The last major extension of British Indian territory took place during the time of : (UPSC – 2000)

(a) Dufferin
(b) Dalhousie
(c) Lytton
(d) Curzon

Correct Answer – (b) Dalhousie

  • The last major extension of British Indian Territory took place during the time of Lord Dalhousie.
  • He used the infamous Doctrine of Lapse to annex many princely states such as Jhansi, Satara, Jaitpur, Sambalpur, Udaipur and Nagpur to the British empire.

20. Who among the following Indian rulers established embassies in foreign countries on modern lines? (UPSC – 2001)

(a) Haider Ali
(b) Mir Qasim
(c) Shah Alam II
(d) Tipu Sultan

Correct Answer – (d) Tipu Sultan

  • Tipu Sultan was Haidar Ali’s son and a great warrior.
  • He organized his army on the European model.
  • He adopted the western military methods like artillery and rockets alongside traditional Indian weapons including war elephants to defeat his opponents.
  • Tipu Sultan established embassies in France, Turkey and Egypt on modern lines.

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UPSC Previous Year Questions on Ancient History

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CivilsCracker Explains

1. The word ‘Hindu’ as reference to the people of Hind (India) was first used by: (UPSC – 1995)

(a) Greeks
(b) Romans
(c) Chinese
(d) Arabs

Correct Answer – (d) Arabs

  • The Arabs were the first to use the word ‘Hindu’ to refer to the people of India.
  • The name of India is derived from the word Sindhu which is the name of the Indus River, mentioned in the Rig-Veda. 
  • Arabs and Iranians first called the people of this land as Hindu.

2. In Sanskrit plays written during the Gupta period women and Sudras speak: (UPSC – 1995)

(a) Sanskrit
(b) Prakrit
(c) Pali
(d) Sauraseni

Correct Answer – (b) Prakrit

  • In Sanskrit plays written during the Gupta period, women and Sudras speak Prakrit language.
  • Elite class used Sanskrit as the language of communication.

3. Who among the following was a Brahmavadini who composed some hymns of the Vedas? (UPSC – 1995)

(a) Lopamudra
(b) Gargi
(c) Leelavati
(d) Savitri

Correct Answer – (a) Lopamudra 

  • Lopamudra was a Brahmavadini who composed some hymns of the Vedas.
  • She was also known as Kaushitaki.
  • Other Brahmavadinis during the vedic period were:
    •  Vishvavara
    • Sikta
    • Navavari
    • Ghosha
    • Maitreyi

4. The name by which Ashoka is generally referred to in his inscriptions is ? (UPSC – 1995)

(a) Chakravarti
(b) Dharmadeva
(c) Dharmakirti
(d) Priyadarsi

Correct Answer – (d) Priyadarsi

  • The name by which Ashoka is generally referred to in his inscriptions is Priyadarshi or Devanampriya.
  • Maski inscription for the first time provided the name of Ashoka with titles like Devanampriya and Priyadarshi and made it clear that Devanampriya Priyadarshi whose inscriptions were found at multiple places was Ashoka.

5. The term ‘Yavanapriya’ mentioned in ancient Sanskrit texts denoted: (UPSC – 1995)

(a) A fine variety of Indian Muslim
(b) Ivory
(c) Damsels sent to the Greek court for dance performance
(d) Pepper

Correct Answer – (d) Pepper

  • Yavanas were Indo-Greeks. 
  • They liked pepper, that is why pepper was known as Yavanapriya.
  • Menander who reigned from 165 BC –130 BC was the most successful Indo-Greek king.

6. The concept of Anuvrata was advocated by: (UPSC – 1995)

(a) Mahayana Buddhism
(b) Hinayana Buddhism
(c) Jainism
(d) The Lokayata school

Correct Answer – (c) Jainism

  • Anuvrata was the five main teachings of Jainism.
  • They were:
    • Satya
    • Ahimsa
    • Asateya 
    • Aparigraha
    • Brahmacharya

7. Bronze icons of Nataraja cast during the Chola period invariably show the deity with: (UPSC – 1995)

(a) Eight hands
(b) Six hands
(c) Four hands
(d) Two hands

Correct Answer – (c) Four hands 

  • Bronze icons of Nataraja cast during the Chola period depict the Hindu god Shiva as the cosmic dancer with four hands.
  • It is one of the finest examples of Chola sculpture.

8. According to the Mimamsa system of philosophy, liberation is possible by means of which among the following ? (UPSC – 1995)

(a) Jnana
(b) Bhakti
(c) Yoga
(d) Karma

Correct Answer – (d) Karma

  • There are six schools of Hindu Philosophy. They are:
    • Nyaya
    • Sankhya
    • Yoga
    • Vaisheshika
    • Purva Mimamsa also know as only Mimansa
    • Uttara Mimamsa (Vedanta Philosophy)
  • They deal with the ‘Karma’, Rebirth and other philosophical matters.
  • Mimansa means investigation or enquiry. 
  • The Mimansa system of philosophy stresses on the doctrine of ‘Karma’. It says that liberation is only possible by means of performing good ‘Karma’.
  • Hence it is also known as ‘Karma Mimamsa’.

9. According to ancient Indian cosmogonic ideas the sequential order of the cycle of four ‘Yugas’ is which among the following ? (UPSC – 1996)

(a) Dwapara, Krita, Treta and Kali
(b) Krita, Dwapara, Treta and Kali
(c) Krita, Treta, Dwapara and Kali
(d) Treta, Dwapara, Kali and Krita

Correct Answer – (c) Krita, Treta, Dvapara and Kali

  • A complete Yuga starts with the Satya Yuga (also known as Krita) followed by Treta Yuga and Dwapara Yuga and ends with Kali Yuga.

10. Which one of the following temples figured in the news regarding the institution of the Devadasi ? (UPSC – 1996)

(a) Jagannath temple, Puri
(b) Pashupatinath temple, Kathmandu
(c) Kandariya Mahadev temple, Khajuraho
(d) Chausath Yogini temple, Bhedaghat

Correct Answer – (a) Jagannath temple, Puri

  • The Devadasi system was a social and religious practice in India. 
  • In this system, Young girls were dedicated to a Hindu deity and were expected to serve the temple for the rest of her life. 
  • This system was once prevalent in Orissa.

11. The river most mentioned in early Vedic literature is : (UPSC – 1996)

(a) Sindhu
(b) Sutudri
(c) Sarasvati
(d) Ganga

Correct Answer – (a) Sindhu

  • The river most mentioned in early Vedic literature is the Sindhu, which is now known as the Indus River. 
  • Indus and its six tributaries were called Sapta Sindhu.
  • Other Rig-vedic rivers were:
    • Satudri → Also known as Sutlej 
    • Vipasa → Also known as Beas 
    • Asikni → Also known as Chenab 
    • Parusni → Also known as Ravi 
    • Vitasta → Also known as Jhelum 
    • Saraswati

12. Which one of the following is not a part of early Jains literature ? (UPSC – 1996)

(a) Therigatha
(b) Acarangasutra
(c) Sutrakritanga
(d) Brihat Kalpasutra

Correct Answer – (a) Therigatha 

  • Therigatha is a Buddhist literature.
  • It is a collection of short poems of early enlightened women in the Pali language.
  • Others are Jain literature.

13. Which of the following were common to both Buddhism and Jainism? (UPSC – 1996)

1. Avoidance of extremities of penance and enjoyment
2. Indifference to the authority of the Vedas
3. Denial of efficacy of rituals
4. Non-injury to animal life

Select the answer using the codes given below:

Codes:
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 3, and 4
(d) 1 and 2

Correct Answer – (b) 2, 3 and 4

  • Teaching which were common to both Buddhism and Jainism:
    • Indifference to the authority of the Vedas
    • Denial of efficacy of rituals
    • Non-injury to animal life
    • Emphasized on non-violence and living a simple life
    • Opposed to the caste system
  • Avoidance of extremities of penance and enjoyment was preached by only Buddhism. 
  • Jainism preached extreme penance.

14. In the context of ancient Indian society which one of the following terms does not belong to the category of the other three? (UPSC – 1996)

(a) Kula
(b) Vamsa
(c) Kosa
(d) Gotra

Correct Answer – (c) Kosa 

  • Kosa was used for treasury and the rest of the three terms were related to family.

15. Who among the following is known for his work on medicine during the Gupta period? (UPSC – 1996)

(a) Saumilla
(b) Sudraka
(c) Shaunaka
(d) Susrutha

Correct Answer – (d) Susrutha

  • Sushruta was an ancient Indian surgeon who lived during the Gupta period.
  • He is the author of ‘Sushruta Samhita’, a comprehensive textbook on medicine and surgery. 
  • He is known as the “Father of Plastic Surgery” .
  • Famous nine gems, or Navratna, in the court of Chandragupta II were:
    • Amarasimha → A Sanskrit lexicographer and poet 
    • Dhanvantri  →  A renowned physician 
    • Harisena  →  A poet and writer who composed the Allahabad pillar inscription 
    • Kalidasa  →  A renowned poet and playwright 
    • Kshapanaka  →  An astrologer 
    • Sanku  →  An architect 
    • Varahamihira →  An astronomer who wrote several famous books such as Brihat Samhita, Panchasiddhantika, and Brihat Jataka.
    • Vararuchi  → A grammarian and Sanskrit scholar 
    • Vetalbhatta →  A magician

16. Which one of the following sculptures invariably used green schist as the medium ? (UPSC – 1996)

(a) Maurya sculptures
(b) Mathura sculptures
(c) Bharhut sculptures
(d) Gandhara sculptures

Correct Answer – (c) Bharhut sculptures

  • Bharhut is a village located in the Satna district of Madhya Pradesh which is known for its famous relics from a Buddhist stupa.
  • The Bharhut stupa may have been established by the Maurya King Ashoka in the 3rd century BCE.
  • SculpturesTh at Bharhut stupa contain numerous birth stories of the Buddha’s previous lives or Jataka tales.
  • They invariably used green schist as the medium.

17. Consider the following pairs: (UPSC – 1996)

A. Vishakhadatta → Drama
B. Varahamihira → Astronomy
C. Charaka → Medicine
D. Brahmagupta → Mathematics

Select the correctly matched pair using the codes given below :

(a) All of the above
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 3, and 4
(d) 1 and 2

Correct Answer – (a) All of the above

  • Vishakhadatta → Drama (Wrote Mudra Rakshasa )
  • Varahamihira →  Astronomy  (Wrote Brihat Samhita, Panchasiddhantika, and Brihat Jataka )
  • Charaka → Medicine ( Wrote Charaka Samhita  )
  • Brahmagupta → Mathematics ( Introduced zero as a number )

18. Consider the following pairs:

A. Gupta → Deogarh
B. Chandella → Khajuraho
C. Chalukya → Panamalai
D. Pallava → Badami

Select the correctly matched pair using the codes given below :

(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 3, and 4
(d) 1 and 2

Correct Answer – (d) 1 and 2

  • Dashavatara Temple at Deogarh is an example of Gupta style architecture.
  • Khajuraho Temples were built by Chandella rulers.
  • Badami, also known as Vatapi in Bijapur district of Karnataka was the center of Chalukyas. 
  • Panamalai or Kanchi in Tamil Nadu was the capital of Pallavas.

19. Which one of the following statements regarding Ashoka stone pillars is INCORRECT ? (UPSC – 1997)

(a) These are highly polished
(b) These are monolithic
(c) The shaft of pillars is tapering in shape
(d) These are parts of architectural structures

Correct Answer – (d) These are parts of architectural structures

  • Ashoka stone pillars were meant to spread his Dhamma.
  • These were not part of the architectural structure.

20. Which one of the following scripts of ancient India was written from right to left ? (UPSC – 1997)

(a) Brahmi
(b) Nand Nagri
(c) Sharada
(d) Kharosthi

Correct Answer – (d) Kharosthi

  • Kharosthi script was deciphered by James Prinsep.
  • It was written from right to left.
  • It is to be noted here that some of the edicts of Ashoka from the northwest of the Asian subcontinent were written in the Kharosthi script.

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Environment and Biodiversity MCQs – 12 (Environment Related Days of the Year)

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Environment and Bio-diversity

Environment and Biodiversity MCQs – 12 (Environment Related Days of the Year)

Most important MCQs from the chapter – Environment Related Days of the Year MCQs for UPSC, State PSCs and Other Examinations.

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CivilsCracker Explains

1. World Wetlands Day is observed on ?

(a) February 2nd
(b) February 22nd
(c) March 2nd
(d) June 2nd

Correct Answer – (a) February 2nd

  • Every year on February 2nd, World Wetlands Day is observed to raise global awareness of the importance of wetlands to people and the environment
  • This day also commemorates the adoption of the Wetlands Convention(Also known as the Ramsar Convention) on February 2, 1971, in the Iranian city of Ramsar.

2. World Wildlife Day is observed on ?

(a) March 3rd
(b) February 22nd
(c) March 2nd
(d) June 2nd

Correct Answer – (a) March 3rd

  • World Wildlife Day is observed on March 3rd.
  • It is observed to commemorate the day of the adoption of the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES) in 1973.

3. The International Polar Bear Day observed on ?

(a) March 3rd
(b) February 27th
(c) March 2nd
(d) June 22nd

Correct Answer – (b) February 27th

  • The International Polar Bear Day is observed on February 27th.
  • It is celebrated to raise awareness about the conservation and protection of the polar bear.

4. International Day of Forests is observed on ?

(a) March 3rd
(b) February 27th
(c) March 21st
(d) June 22nd

Correct Answer – (c) March 21st

  • International Day of Forests is observed on March 21st.
  • It is celebrated to raise awareness about the importance of all types of forests, and trees outside forests, for the benefit of current and future generations

5. World Water Day observed on ?

(a) March 3rd
(b) February 27th
(c) March 22nd
(d) June 22nd

Correct Answer – (c) March 22nd

  • World Water Day is observed on March 22nd.
  • It is celebrated to highlight the importance of freshwater. 
  • The day is used to encourage the sustainable management of freshwater resources.

6. World Meteorological Day observed on ?

(a) March 23rd
(b) February 27th
(c) March 22nd
(d) June 22nd

Correct Answer – (a) March 23rd

  • World Meteorological Day observed on March 23rd.
  • It is celebrated to commemorate the establishment of the World Meteorological Organization on 23 March 1950.

7. The International Day of Zero Waste observed on ?

(a) March 23rd
(b) February 27th
(c) March 30th
(d) June 22nd

Correct Answer – (c) March 30th

  • The International Day of Zero Waste is observed annually on March 30. 
  • The day’s aim is to raise awareness of zero-waste initiatives and their role in sustainable development. 
  • The United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) and the United Nations Human Settlements Programme (UN-Habitat) work together to encourage the observance of the day throughout the world.

8. Earth Day observed on ?

(a) March 23rd
(b) February 27th
(c) March 30th
(d) April 22nd

Correct Answer – (d) April 22nd

  • Earth Day is observed annually on April 22nd.
  • It is observed globally to demonstrate support for environmental protection.

9. World Health Day observed on ?

(a) March 3rd
(b) February 7th
(c) March 30th
(d) April 7th

Correct Answer – (d) April 7th

  • World Health Day is observed annually on April 7th.
  • It is observed globally to draw world attention on a health problem or issue that deserves special attention.
  • It is observed with the support of the World Health Organization.

10. World Biodiversity Day observed on ?

(a) March 3rd
(b) May 22nd
(c) March 30th
(d) April 7th

Correct Answer – (d) April 7th

  • World Biodiversity Day is observed annually on May 22nd.
  • It is observed globally to draw world attention on biodiversity issues.
  • It is observed to commemorate the adoption of the Convention on Biological Diversity May 22, 1992, at the Rio de Janeiro Earth Summit.

11. World Heritage Day observed on ?

(a) March 3rd
(b) April 18th
(c) March 30th
(d) April 7th

Correct Answer – (b) April 18th

  • World Heritage Day is observed annually on April 18th.
  • It is observed globally to encourage people to celebrate the different cultures of the world and to bring awareness to important cultural monuments and sites.
  • It was declared by The International Council on Monuments and Sites (ICOMOS).

12. World Environment Day observed on ?

(a) March 3rd
(b) April 18th
(c) March 30th
(d) June 5th

Correct Answer – (d) June 5th

  • World Environment Day is observed annually on June 5th.
  • It is observed globally to spread awareness and action for the protection of the environment, marine pollution, overpopulation, global warming, sustainable development and wildlife crime.
  • It was first observed in 1972 by the United Nations at the Stockholm Conference on the Human Environment.

13. International Day for the Preservation of the Ozone Layer observed on ?

(a) March 3rd
(b) September 16th
(c) March 30th
(d) June 5th

Correct Answer – (b) September 16th

  • International Day for the Preservation of the Ozone Layer also known as World Ozone Day is observed annually on September 16th.
  • It is observed globally to commemorate the date in 1987 when the Montreal Protocol on Substances that Deplete the Ozone Layer was signed by the nations of the world.

14. World Habitat Day observed on ?

(a) First Monday of October
(b) Last Monday of October
(c) First Monday of December
(d) First Monday of June

Correct Answer – (a) First Monday of October 

  • World Habitat Day is observed annually on the First Monday of October.
  • It is observed globally to reflect on the state of towns and cities and on the basic right of the people to adequate shelter.
  • World Habitat Day was first celebrated in 1986 in Nairobi, Kenya.

15. World Day to Combat Desertification and Drought observed on ?

(a) March 3rd
(b) September 16th
(c) March 30th
(d) June 17th

Correct Answer – (d) June 17th

  • World Day to Combat Desertification and Drought observed on June 17th.
  • It is observed globally to raise awareness about the desertification and drought and  highlighting methods of preventing desertification and recovering from drought.

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Environment and Biodiversity MCQs – 11 (National Parks and Tiger Reserves in India)

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Environment and Bio-diversity

Environment and Biodiversity MCQs – 11 (National Parks and Tiger Reserves in India)

Most important MCQs from the chapter – National Parks and Tiger Reserves in India MCQs for UPSC, State PSCs and Other Examinations.

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1. The largest national park in India is ?

(a) Kaziranga National Park
(b) Jim Corbett National Park
(c) Hemis National Park
(d) Gir National Park

Correct Answer – (c) Hemis National Park

  • Hemis National Park in Ladakh, Jammu and Kashmir is the largest national park in India.
  • It is spread over around  4,400 square kilometers.

2. What was the first national park of India ?

(a) Kaziranga National Park
(b) Jim Corbett National Park
(c) Hemis National Park
(d) Gir National Park

Correct Answer – (b) Jim Corbett National Park

  • Jim Corbett National Park was India’s first national park.
  • It is located in Uttarakhand and  known for its Bengal tigers. 
  • It is a part of the Corbett Tiger Reserve.

3. Which among the following national parks is located in the northeastern state of Assam ?

(a) Kaziranga National Park
(b) Jim Corbett National Park
(c) Hemis National Park
(d) Gir National Park

Correct Answer – (a) Kaziranga National Park

  • Kaziranga National Park was declared as a National Park in 1974 and  tiger reserve in 2007.
  • It is also recognized as an Important Bird Area by BirdLife International.
  • It is the home of the world’s largest population of one-horned rhinos. 
  • It is also a UNESCO Natural World Heritage Site.

4. Which among the following national parks is NOT located in Assam ?

(a) Nameri National Park
(b) Manas National Park
(c) Dibru-Saikhowa National Park
(d) Gir National Park

Correct Answer – (d) Gir National Park

  • The Gir National Park and Wildlife Sanctuary is located in Gujarat.
  • It was declared as a National Park in 1975.
  • It is the only natural habitat of Asiatic lions.
  • Nameri National Park, Manas National Park and  Dibru-Saikhowa National Park are located in Assam.

5. Marine National Park is located in which among the following states ?

(a) Assam
(b) Gujarat
(c) West Bengal
(d) Maharashtra

Correct Answer – (b) Gujarat

  • The Marine Park is located in the Gulf of Kutch, Gujarat.
  • It is India’s first Marine Wildlife Sanctuary and Marine National Park.

6. Gulf of Mannar Marine National Park is located in which among the following states ?

(a) Assam
(b) TamilNadu
(c) West Bengal
(d) Maharashtra

Correct Answer – (b) TamilNadu

  • Gulf of Mannar Marine National Park is located near Dhanushkodi in Tamil Nadu.
  • It is also a Marine Biosphere Reserve.
  • It has a rich biodiversity of mangroves, seagrass, and coral reefs.

7. Dugong, an endangered marine mammal is mainly found in ?

(a) Nameri National Park
(b) Gahirmatha Marine Sanctuary
(c) Marine National Park, Gulf of Kutch
(d) Gulf of Mannar Marine National Park

Correct Answer – (d) Gulf of Mannar Marine National Park

  • Dugong, also known as the sea cow, is a herbivorous mammal mainly found in Gulf of Mannar Marine National Park, TamilNadu.
  • They inhabit shallow waters and are known to travel long distances to find food.

8. Which national park is located in the Nilgiri Hills and is part of the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve ?

(a) Nameri National Park
(b) Silent Valley National Park
(c) Bandipur National Park
(d) Gulf of Mannar Marine National Park

Correct Answer – (c) Bandipur National Park 

  • Bandipur National Park is located in the Nilgiri Hills and is part of the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve.
  • It is located at the tri-junction area of the States Karnataka, Tamil Nadu and Kerala.

9. Which among the following Tiger Reserves is NOT located in Karnataka ?

(a) Nagarahole Tiger Reserve
(b) Bandipur Tiger Reserve
(c) Dandeli-Anshi Tiger Reserve
(d) Mudumalai Tiger Reserve

Correct Answer – (d) Mudumalai Tiger Reserve

  • Mudumalai Tiger Reserve is located in the Nilgiris District of Tamil Nadu.
  • It is a part of Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve.

10. Mahatma Gandhi Marine National Park is located in which among the following states ?

(a) Assam
(b) Andaman & Nicobar Islands
(c) West Bengal
(d) Maharashtra

Correct Answer – (b) Andaman & Nicobar Islands

  • Mahatma Gandhi Marine National Park  is located in Andaman & Nicobar Islands.
  • It is located in South Andaman and has wide varieties of mangroves, corals and sea turtles.

11. The largest tiger reserve in India is ?

(a) Nagarjunsagar-Srisailam Tiger Reserve
(b) Mudumalai Tiger Reserve
(c) Bandipur Tiger Reserve
(d) Dandeli-Anshi Tiger Reserve

Correct Answer – (a) Nagarjunsagar-Srisailam Tiger Reserve

  • The Nagarjunsagar-Srisailam Tiger Reserve in Andhra Pradesh is the largest tiger reserve in India. 
  • It is located inside the Nallamala Hills and covers around 3,728 square kilometers.

12. Which national park is part of Seshachalam Hills Biosphere Reserve ?

(a) Nameri National Park
(b) Silent Valley National Park
(c) Bandipur National Park
(d) Sri Venkateswara National Park

Correct Answer – (d) Sri Venkateswara National Park

  • Sri Venkateswara National Park is a part of the Seshachalam Hills Biosphere Reserve. 
  • It spreads over the Seshachalam hills of Eastern Ghats, in Andhra Pradesh.

13. Mouling National Park is located in which among the following states ?

(a) Assam
(b) Andaman & Nicobar Islands
(c) Mizoram
(d) Arunachal Pradesh

Correct Answer – (d) Arunachal Pradesh

  • Mouling National Park is located in Arunachal Pradesh.
  • It is named after Mouling peak. 
  • It is part of Dihang-Dibang Biosphere Reserve.

14. Namdapha flying squirrel, a critically endangered species, is found in which among the following states ?

(a) Assam
(b) Andaman & Nicobar Islands
(c) Mizoram
(d) Arunachal Pradesh

Correct Answer – (d) Arunachal Pradesh

  • The Namdapha flying squirrel is only found in Namdapha National Park and Tiger Reserve located in Arunachal Pradesh.
  • Its IUCN status is critically endangered.

15. Consider the following pairs :

1. Valmiki National Park → Bihar
2. Achanakmar National Park → Madhya Pradesh

Select the correctly matched pairs using the codes given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer – (c) Both 1 and 2

  • Valmiki National Park is the only National Park in Bihar.
  • It is located in the foothill ranges of Siwaliks.
  • Achanakmar National Park is located in the parts of Chhattisgarh and Madhya Pradesh.
  • It is a part of the Achanakmar-Amarkantak Biosphere Reserve.

16. Dr. Salim Ali Bird Sanctuary is located in which of the following states ?

(a) Assam
(b) Goa
(c) Maharashtra
(d) Arunachal Pradesh

Correct Answer – (b) Goa

  • Dr. Salim Ali Bird Sanctuary is located along the Mandovi River in Goa.
  • It is an estuarine mangrove habitat which is a famous bird sanctuary

17. Consider the following pairs :

1. Velavadar National Park → Gujarat
2. Murlen National Park → Mizoram

Select the correctly matched pairs using the codes given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer – (c) Both 1 and 2

  • Velavadar National Park is located in Gujarat.
  • Famous for Blackbucks found here.
  • Murlen National Park is located in Mizoram and located close to the Chin Hills of Myanmar.

18. Consider the following statements about Wild Ass Wildlife Sanctuary :

1. It is located in Little Rann of Kutch.
2. It is the only home to Indian wild ass in India.

Select the correct statement(s) using the codes given below.

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer – (c) Both 1 and 2

  • Wild Ass Wildlife Sanctuary  is located in the Little Rann of Kutch, Gujarat.
  • It is the only home to Indian wild ass in India.

19. Consider the following pairs :

1. Great Himalayan National Park → Jammu & Kashmir
2. Dachigam National Park → Himachal Pradesh

Select the correctly matched pairs using the codes given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer – (d) Neither 1 nor 2

  • Great Himalayan National Park located in the Kullu Valley in Himachal Pradesh.
  • It is also a UNESCO World Heritage Site.
  • It is famous for Snow leopard and Himalayan tahr.
  • Dachigam National Park is located in Jammu & Kashmir and part of Western Himalayas.
  • Famous for Kashmiri stag (Hangul).

20. Betla National Park and Palamu Tiger Reserve are located in ?

(a) Jharkhand
(b) Bihar
(c) Maharashtra
(d) Arunachal Pradesh

Correct Answer – (a) Jharkhand 

  • Betla NP and Palamu Tiger Reserve are located in the  Chota Nagpur Plateau of Jharkhand.

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Ancient History Mock Test

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Ancient History Mock Test

Ancient History Free Mock Test for UPSC Prelims, State PSC and Other Examinations.

This free test series has been created for the benefit of aspirants so that they can score good marks in the examination. This test contains basic as well as advanced questions of Ancient history.

0%

Ancient History Mock Test

 

Syllabus - Ancient History 

Number Of Questions - 25

Time Duration - 30 Minutes

1 / 25

Q. Epigraphy is the study of ?

2 / 25

Q . Which one of the following is true regarding the Harappan Script?

3 / 25

Q . The great Bath was found in ?

4 / 25

Q . Which emperor has been called Napoleon of India ?

5 / 25

Q . The first metal discovered by man was ?

6 / 25

Q . Who composed the Allahabad Prasasti ?

7 / 25

Q . Which was a major port of the Indus Valley ?

8 / 25

Q . The Indus Valley Civilization belongs to which among the following periods ?

9 / 25

Q . What is the total number of Puranas ?

10 / 25

Q . Harappan people carried trade with which among the following countries ?

11 / 25

Q . Which of the following is a Harappan site located in Rajasthan ?

12 / 25

Q . Who among the following was the last Tirthankara of Jainism ?

13 / 25

Q . Taxila was the famous site of which among the following ?

14 / 25

Q . Most of the chola temples were dedicated to which among the following Gods ?

15 / 25

Q. Who among the following was not a contemporary of Kanishka ?

16 / 25

Q . Harshvardhana was defeated by which among the following kings ?

17 / 25

Q . Which among the following is Jaina literature ?

18 / 25

Q . Which of the following is not one of the animals carved on the Sarnath Pillar ?

19 / 25

Q . Consider the following statements:

  1. Ajatasatru murdered his father to ascend the throne
  2. Ajatasatru shifted his capital to Patliputra

Select the correct statements from the codes below:

20 / 25

Q . The Uttaramerur inscription provides information on the administration of which among the following ?

21 / 25

Q . Consider the following statements regarding Buddhist Literature ‘Tripitakas’ :

  1. They were written in Sanskrit.
  2. Sutta Pitaka contains the teachings of the Buddha

Select the correct statements from the codes below:

22 / 25

Q . Consider the following statements regarding Pallavas :

  1. Mahendravarman and Narasimhavarman-I were the famous rulers of Pallava dynasty.
  2. Their capital was Kanchi.

Select the correct statements from the codes below:

23 / 25

Q . Sangam Age is associated with the history of which among the following states ?

24 / 25

Q . Consider the following statements regarding Rashtrakutas:

  1. Rashtrakuta kingdom was founded by Danti Durga.
  2. Amoghavarsha I was a famous Rashtrakuta king.

Select the correct statements from the codes below:

25 / 25

Q . Bindusara sent Asoka to quell the rebellion in which among the following places ?

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Environment and Biodiversity MCQs – 10 (Environmental Organizations in India)

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Environment and Bio-diversity

Environment and Biodiversity MCQs – 10 (Environmental Organizations in India)

Most important MCQs from the chapter – Environmental Organizations in India MCQs for UPSC, State PSC and Other Examinations.

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CivilsCracker Explains

1. Consider the following statements Forest Survey of India (FSI):

1. It is an organization under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change.
2. It is headquartered at Dehradun.

Select the correct statement(s) using the codes given below.

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer – (c) Both 1 and 2

  • Forest Survey of India (FSI) is an organization under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change.
  • It was founded in June 1981.
  • Headquarter → Dehradun.
  • It publishes a biennial report known as ‘The Indian State of Forest Reports’.

2. Consider the following statements Botanical Survey of India (BSI):

1. It is an organization under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change.
2. It is headquartered at New Delhi.

Select the correct statement(s) using the codes given below.

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer – (a) 1 only

  • Botanical Survey of India (BSI) is an organization under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change.
  • It was founded in 1890.
  • Headquarter → Kolkata.
  • It publishes the Red Data Book of Indian Plants.

3. Consider the following statements about National Tiger Conservation Authority(NTCA) :

1. It is a statutory body under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change.
2. It was constituted under the provisions of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.

Select the correct statement(s) using the codes given below.

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer – (c) Both 1 and 2

  •  National Tiger Conservation Authority(NTCA) is a  statutory body under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change.
  • It was constituted in 2005 under the provisions of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 for tiger conservation efforts.
  • It publishes the report titled Status of the Tigers, Co-predators, and Prey in India.

4. Consider the following statements about Animal Welfare Board of India :

1. It is a statutory body under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change.
2. It was started with the efforts of Late Smt. Rukmini Devi Arundale.

Select the correct statement(s) using the codes given below.

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer – (b) 2 only

  • Animal Welfare Board of India is a statutory advisory body under the Union Ministry of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry and Dairying.
  • It derives its powers from  Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act, 1960.
  • It was started with the efforts of Late Smt. Rukmini Devi Arundale in 1962.
  • It advises the Central Government on the making of rules to prevent unnecessary pain or suffering to animals.
  • Headquarters → Chennai

5. Consider the following statements about Wildlife Crime Control Bureau :

1. It is a statutory body under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change.
2. It was established under the provisions of the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972.

Select the correct statement(s) using the codes given below.

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer – (c) Both 1 and 2

  • Wildlife Crime Control Bureau is a statutory body under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change.
  • It was established  by amending the provisions of the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972.
  • It is mandated to collect and collate intelligence related to organized wildlife crimes and disseminate the same to State and other enforcement agencies.
  • It also prepares a centralized wildlife crime data bank.
  • Headquarter → New Delhi

6. Consider the following statements about National Biodiversity Authority :

1. It is a statutory authority set up under the provisions of Biological Diversity Act (2002).
2. Its headquarter is in Chennai.

Select the correct statement(s) using the codes given below.

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer – (c) Both 1 and 2

  • National Biodiversity Authority is a statutory, autonomous authority set up under the provisions of  Biological Diversity Act (2002).
  • It make rules and advises the Government of India on the following matters:
    • Conservation of Biodiversity
    • Sustainable use of biological resources
    • Fair and equitable sharing of benefits arising out of the use of biological resources.
  • Headquarter → Chennai.

7. Consider the following statements about National Ganga River Basin Authority :

1. It was established under the Environment (Protection) Act of 1986.
2. The Prime Minister of India is the chairman of the NGRBA.

Select the correct statement(s) using the codes given below.

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer – (c) Both 1 and 2

  • National Ganga River Basin Authority was established under the Environment (Protection) Act of 1986.
  • It is mandated to develop the management plan for the Ganga River Basin and control and reduce pollution in Ganga River.
  • The Prime Minister of India is the chairman of the NGRBA.

8. Consider the following statements about Wildlife Trust of India :

1. It is a non-profit organization.
2. Its aim is to conserve wildlife and its habitat.

Select the correct statement(s) using the codes given below.

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer – (c) Both 1 and 2

  • The Wildlife Trust of India (WTI) is a non-profit conservation organization  founded in 1998 in New Delhi.
  • Its aim is to conserve wildlife and its habitat.
  • WTI runs different conservation projects across the country for the protection and welfare of animals.

9. Consider the following statements about Central Pollution Control Board :

1. It was established under the Environment (Protection) Act of 1986.
2. Its mandate is to control and prevent water and air pollution.

Select the correct statement(s) using the codes given below.

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer – (b) 2 only

  • Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB)  is a statutory body under the Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change established under the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974. 
  • CPCB is also entrusted with the powers and functions under the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981.
  • Its mandate is to control and prevent water and air pollution.

10. Consider the following statements about National Green Tribunal :

1. It was established under the Environment (Protection) Act of 1986.
2. Mumbai is the principal seat of the tribunal.

Select the correct statement(s) using the codes given below.

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer – (d) Neither 1 nor 2

  • National Green Tribunal (NGT) was established under the National Green Tribunal Act 2010.
  • Its mandate is to expeditious disposal of cases relating to the environment.
  • New Delhi is the principal seat of the tribunal and Bhopal, Pune, Kolkata, and Chennai are the other four seats of the tribunal.
  • The Chairperson of the NGT is a retired Judge of the Supreme Court

11. Central Zoo Authority (CZA) is a statutory body under ?

(a) Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
(b) Ministry of Urban Affairs
(c) Ministry of Rural development
(d) Ministry of Agriculture

Correct Answer – (a) Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change

  • Central Zoo Authority (CZA)  is a statutory body under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change.
  • It was constituted in 1992 under the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.
  • It is chaired by the Environment Minister.

12. Wildlife Institute of India (WII) is located in ?

(a) Dehradun
(b) Kolkata
(c) New Delhi
(d) Pune

Correct Answer – (a) Dehradun

  • The Wildlife Institute of India (WII) is an autonomous institution established in 1982 under the Ministry of Environment Forest and Climate change.
  • It performs wildlife research in areas of study like Biodiversity, Endangered Species, Wildlife Policy, Wildlife Management, Habitat Ecology and Climate Change etc.
  • It is located in Dehradun.

13. Headquarter of the Zoological Survey of India is located in ?

(a) Dehradun
(b) Kolkata
(c) New Delhi
(d) Pune

Correct Answer – (b) Kolkata

  • The Zoological Survey of India was founded in 1916.
  • It functions under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change.
  • It is a premier organization in zoological research of the fauna in the country.

14. Consider the following statements about Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management and Planning Authority :

1. It serves as a mechanism to manage and utilize funds generated for compensatory afforestation.
2. It was initially established under the Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980.

Select the correct statement(s) using the codes given below.

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer – (c) Both 1 and 2

  • The Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management and Planning Authority serves as a mechanism to manage and utilize funds generated for compensatory afforestation.
  •  It was initially established under the Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980 however, Compensatory Afforestation Fund Act, 2016 formalized its structure and functioning.

15. Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) works under ?

(a) Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
(b) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
(c) Ministry of Rural development
(d) Ministry of Agriculture

Correct Answer – (b) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare

  • Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) is an autonomous body established under the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.
  • It was established under the Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006.
  • It is mandated to set the standards for food, ensure that food businesses adhere to these standards and adopt good manufacturing and hygiene practices.
  • It regularly monitors compliance of food regulations.

Also Read in Environment and Ecology MCQs :

Environment and Biodiversity MCQs – 09 (Environment Protection Initiatives in India)

by
Environment and Bio-diversity

Environment and Biodiversity MCQs – 09 (Environment Protection Initiatives in India)

Most important MCQs from the chapter – Environment Protection Initiatives in India MCQs for UPSC, State PSC and Other Examinations.

Chapterwise MCQs

Short Notes

Free Test Series

CivilsCracker Explains

1. Eco-Mark is given to the Indian products that are ?

(a) Unadulterated
(b) Rich in proteins
(c) Environment-friendly
(d) Economically viable

Correct Answer – (c) Environment-friendly

  • The Government of India launched the eco-labeling scheme known as `Ecomark’ in 1991 for the identification and encouragement of environment-friendly products. 
  • It is a certification mark issued by the Bureau of Indian Standards to products conforming to a set of standards aimed at the least impact on the environment.

2. The Chipko movement was started against ?

(a) Water pollution
(b) Noise pollution
(c) Deforestation
(d) Cultural pollution

Correct Answer –  (c) Deforestation

  • Chipko Movement was an environmental movement started by rural villagers in India in the 1970s aimed at protecting trees and forests.
  • In this movement, protesters engaged in tree hugging, wrapping their arms around trees so that they could not be felled.

3. The term M-STRIPES sometimes seen in the news in the context of which among the following ?

(a) Captive breeding endangered animals
(b) Monitoring System for Tigers
(c) Indigenous Satellite Navigation System
(d) Security of National Highways

Correct Answer –  (b) Monitoring System for Tigers

  • M-STRIPES, also known as Monitoring System for Tigers – Intensive Protection and Ecological Status, is a software-based monitoring system launched across Indian tiger reserves by the Indian government.
  • It was launched by the National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) in 2010.
  • It  uses the Global Positioning System (GPS) to assist effective patrolling, assess ecological status and mitigate human-wildlife conflict in tiger reserves.

4. Tiger Census in India is conducted by ?

(a) Forest Survey of India
(b) National Tiger Conservation Authority
(c) Wildlife institute of india
(d) None of the Above

Correct Answer –  (b) National Tiger Conservation Authority

  • Tiger Census in India is conducted by National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA).
  • The first Tiger Census was conducted in 2006.
  • Latest Tiger Census conducted in 2022, estimated that India’s tiger population is between 3,167 and 3,925.

5. Consider the following statements about Project Tiger :

1. It was launched in 1993.
2. It is a scheme of the Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change.

Select the correct statement(s) using the codes given below.

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer – (b) 2 only

  • Project Tiger was launched in 1973 for conserving the tiger population.
  • It is a centrally sponsored scheme of the Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change.

6. Project Tiger was launched for the first time in which among the following National Parks ?

(a) Jim Corbett National Park
(b) Kaziranga National Park
(c) Manas National Park
(d) Kanha National Park

Correct Answer – (a) Jim Corbett National Park 

  • Project Tiger was launched in Jim Corbett National Park of Uttarakhand in 1973.
  • Project Tiger is administered by the National Tiger Conservation Authority.
  • A special force known as Tiger Protection Force was launched by the Government to fight against the menace of tiger poaching.

7. Project Elephant was launched in ?

(a) 1991
(b) 1992
(c) 1993
(d) 1994

Correct Answer – (b) 1992

  • Project Elephant was launched in 1992 as a centrally sponsored scheme of the government.

8. Elephant Corridors are created to provide ?

(a) Path for animal movement from one habitat to another
(b) Treatment of sick elephants
(c) Import of elephant from another country
(d) None of the above

Correct Answer – (a) Path for animal movement from one habitat to another

  • An elephant corridor is a stretch of forested land that connects larger habitats with elephant populations and provides a path for elephant movement between the habitats.

9. Which state has the highest number of elephants in India ?

(a) Assam
(b) Kerala
(c) Karnataka
(d) Bihar

Correct Answer – (c) Karnataka 

  • Karnataka has the highest number of elephants in India.
  • The elephant population in the country is estimated to be over 30,000.
  • It is to be noted that India has the largest population of wild Asian Elephants.

10. Consider the following statements about Elephants :

1. Elephants are keystone species in the habitats they live in.
2. Elephant is the Natural Heritage Animal of India.

Select the correct statement(s) using the codes given below.

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer – (c) Both 1 and 2

  • Due to their large size and contribution to the ecosystem, Elephants are keystone species in the habitats they live in.
  • Elephant is the Natural Heritage Animal of India.

11. MIKE Program is related to the conservation of ?

(a) Tiger
(b) Lion
(c) Elephant
(d) Vultures

Correct Answer – (c) Elephant

  • The Monitoring the Killing of Elephants (MIKE) programme launched in 2003 is an international collaboration to prevent the illegal killing of elephants from across Africa and Asia.
  • The program also monitors the effectiveness of field conservation efforts and gives recommendations.

12. Project Snow Leopard was launched in ?

(a) 2008
(b) 2009
(c) 2010
(d) 2011

Correct Answer – (b) 2009 

  • Project Snow Leopard was launched in 2009 to conserve snow leopards and their habitat. 
  • Project adopts an inclusive, participatory and landscape-based approach to safeguard Snow Leopards in India.
  • In India, Snow Leopards are mainly found in Jammu and Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Sikkim and Arunachal Pradesh.
  • Snow Leopard is listed in Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act of 1972.
  • It is included in Appendix I of the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species (CITES).

13. Consider the following statements about Olive ridley turtles :

1. They are the world’s smallest sea turtles.
2. They are not found in India.

Select the correct statement(s) using the codes given below.

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer – (a) 1 only

  • Olive ridley turtles are the world’s smallest and most abundant sea turtles.
  • They are mainly found in the Pacific, Atlantic and Indian oceans.
  • Gahirmatha Marine Sanctuary in Odisha is the world’s largest breeding colony of Olive ridley turtles.

14. The Sea Turtle Project was started to mainly conserve which among the following ?

(a) Leatherback Turtle
(b) Hawksbill Turtle
(c) Loggerhead Turtle
(d) Olive Ridley Turtle

Correct Answer – (d) Olive Ridley Turtle

  • The Sea Turtle Project was started to mainly conserve Olive Ridley Turtles.
  • During each winter, a large number of the global Olive Ridley Turtle population migrates to the coastal waters of India along the eastern coast.
  • With the goal of conserving Olive Ridley turtles and other endangered marine turtles, the Ministry of Environment and Forests, in collaboration with UNDP, started the Sea Turtle Conservation Project in November 1999. 
  • The Wildlife Institute of India, Dehradun works as the implementing agency of the project.

15. Consider the following statements about Project Hangul :

1. It was launched to protect Kashmiri stags.
2. It was launched in the state of Jammu & Kashmir.

Select the correct statement(s) using the codes given below.

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer – (c) Both 1 and 2

  • The Kashmir stag also called Hangul is a subspecies of Deer found in Dachigam National Park.
  • Project Hangul was launched in the state of Jammu & Kashmir in collaboration with IUCN and the WWF for the protection of Kashmiri stags.
  • Kashmiri stag is the state animal of Jammu & Kashmir.

Also Read in Environment and Ecology MCQs :

Environment and Biodiversity MCQs – 08 (Biodiversity Conservation)

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Environment and Bio-diversity

Environment and Biodiversity MCQs – 08 (Biodiversity Conservation)

Most important MCQs from the chapter – Biodiversity Conservation MCQs for UPSC, State PSC and Other Examinations.

Chapterwise MCQs

Short Notes

Free Test Series

CivilsCracker Explains

1. The maximum biodiversity is found in which among the following types of forests ?

(a) Tropical rain forests
(b) Temperate forests
(c) Coniferous forests
(d) Arctic forests

Correct Answer – (a) Tropical rain forests

  • The maximum diversity is found in tropical rainforests. 
  • Tropical forests are some of the richest areas on Earth in terms of biodiversity .
  • About 80% of the world’s documented species can be found in tropical rainforests.

2. Which one of the following trees is considered to be an environmental hazard ?

(a) Babool
(b) Teak
(c) Neem
(d) Eucalyptus

Correct Answer – (d) Eucalyptus

  • Eucalyptus trees can have a many negative environmental impacts due to following  reasons:
    • Consume more water than other trees
    • Deplete soil nutrients and moisture
    • Can be a fire hazard as they are extremely flammable
  • Eucalyptus is responsible for replacing indigenous forests in several parts of the world, depleting food and shelter sources and therefore affecting animals and birds.

3. Which one of the following is the most important cause for decline of biodiversity ?

(a) Genetic assimilation
(b) Rise in Predators
(c) Destruction of habitat
(d) Persistent Organic Pollutants

Correct Answer – (c) Destruction of habitat

  • Destruction of habitat is the most important cause for decline of biodiversity.
  • Other reasons for the decline of biodiversity are:
    • Climate change
    • Pollution
    • Illegal trade
    • Overexploitation

4. Which one of the following is focused on the conservation of biodiversity ?

(a) Biosphere Reserves
(b) Botanical Gardens
(c) National Parks
(d) Wild Life Sanctuaries

Correct Answer – (a) Biosphere Reserves

  • Biosphere reserves provide in-situ conservation of natural populations of both flora or fauna.
  • Biosphere Reserve (BR) is an international designation by United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO)
  • This is an in-situ conservation technique.

5. Consider the following statements Biodiversity Hotspots :

1. These are regions with exceptional concentrations of unique species.
2. The concept of biodiversity hotspots was given by biologist Norman Myers.

Select the correct statement(s) using the codes given below.

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer – (c) Both 1 and 2

  • Biodiversity hotspots are regions with exceptional concentrations of unique species.
  • Biodiversity hotspots are critical for biodiversity conservation due to high species richness and threats from habitat loss.
  • India has four Biodiversity hotspots.
  • The concept of biodiversity hotspots was given by biologist Norman Myers In 1988.

6. Which among the following is not a Biodiversity Hotspot ?

(a) Himalayas
(b) Indo-Burma region
(c) Western Ghats
(d) Amarkantak Hills

Correct Answer – (d) Amarkantak Hills

  • India has four Biodiversity hotspots which are as following:
    • Himalayas
    • Indo-Burma region
    • Western Ghats
    • Sundaland(Andaman and Nicobar Islands)

7. Which of the following can be threats to the biodiversity of a geographical area ?

1. Global warming
2. Destruction of habitat
3. Invasion of alien species

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) None of the Above

Correct Answer –  (c) 1, 2 and 3 only

  • Global warming, the destruction of natural habitats of organisms, environmental pollution and Invasion of alien species are all threats to biodiversity.

8. Consider the following statements:

1. Biodiversity is normally greater in the lower latitudes as compared to the higher latitudes.
2. Biodiversity is normally greater in the lower altitudes as compared to the higher altitudes.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer –  (c) Both 1 and 2

  • Biodiversity is normally greater in the lower latitudes as compared to the higher latitudes.
  • There is a decrease in biodiversity from the equator towards the poles.
  • Biodiversity is normally greater in the lower altitudes as compared to the higher altitudes.
  • Higher altitudes have harsh climate hence only few species can survive there.

9. Consider the following statements about ‘Keystone species’:

1. Keystone species are the plants and organisms which have a large effect on the environment.
2. Keystone species play a critical role in maintaining the structure of an ecological community.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer –  (c) Both 1 and 2

  • Keystone species greatly affect the environment. 
  • They play a very critical role in maintaining the structure of an ecological community by affecting many other organisms. 
  • An ecosystem may experience a dramatic shift if a keystone species is removed, even though that species may be a small part of the ecosystem by measures of biomass or productivity.

10. Consider the following statements about ‘Genetic diversity’:

1. It is the variation in genes within a particular species.
2. It ensures that some species survive major changes and thus carry on desirable genes.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer –  (c) Both 1 and 2

  • Genetic diversity is the variation in genes within a particular species.
  •  It ensures that some species survive major changes and thus carry on desirable genes.
  • Species evolve with every passing generation due to genetic diversity.

11. Which among the following is used to measure the Biodiversity of an area ?

(a) Species richness
(b) Species evenness
(c) species mortality rate
(d) Both (a) and (b)

Correct Answer – (d) Both (a) and (b)

  • Species richness → Measure of number of species found in an area.
  • Species evenness → Measures the proportion of species at a given site.
  • Low evenness indicates that a few species dominate the area.

12. Which of the following is not a reason of Biodiversity Loss ?

1. Lack of pollination
2. Availability of food sources
3. Hunting and Poaching

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 3 only

Correct Answer – (c) 2 only

  • Lack of pollination, Hunting and Poaching are the reasons for biodiversity loss.
  • Availability of food sources is not a reason for biodiversity loss.

13. Consider the following pairs about Biodiversity Conservation:

1. In-situ conservation → Conserving the animals and plants in their natural habitats
2. Ex-situ conservation → Conserving the animals and plants outside their natural habitats

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched ?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer –  (c) Both 1 and 2

  • In-situ conservation → Conserving the animals and plants in their natural habitats.
  • Examples → National parks,  Wildlife Sanctuaries, Biosphere reserves etc.
  • Ex-situ conservation → Conserving the animals and plants outside their natural habitats. 
  • Examples → Zoological parks, Seed banks, Botanical gardens, Reintroduction of an extinct species in a habitat etc.

14. A property of a species being unique to a defined geographic location is known as ?

(a) Species richness
(b) Species evenness
(c) Endemism
(d) Alpha diversity

Correct Answer – (c) Endemism

  • Endemism is the ecological state of a species being unique to a defined geographic location such as an area or a country or other defined zone.
  • Organisms that are endemic to place are not found elsewhere in the world.

15. Which one of the following is not an example of in-situ conservation of flora ?

(a) Biosphere Reserves
(b) Botanical Garden
(c) National Park
(d) Wildlife Sanctuary

Correct Answer – (b) Botanical Garden

  • In Botanical Garden, Plants are bred in a protected environment far from their natural home, especially for research purposes.
  • This is an example of ex-situ conservation.

Also Read in Environment and Ecology MCQs :

Environment and Biodiversity MCQs – 07 (Endangered Species of India)

by
Environment and Bio-diversity

Environment and Biodiversity MCQs – 07 (Endangered Species of India)

Most important MCQs from the chapter – Endangered Species of India MCQs for UPSC, State PSC and Other Examinations.

Chapterwise MCQs

Short Notes

Free Test Series

CivilsCracker Explains

1. Which among the following publishes the Red List of Threatened Species ?

(a) UNESCO
(b) World Bank
(c) CITIES
(d) IUCN

Correct Answer – (d) IUCN

  • The International Union for Conservation of Nature publishes the Red List of Threatened Species.
  • It is the most comprehensive information source on the global conservation status of animal, fungi and plant species.

2. Which among the following is not a category under the Red List of Threatened Species ?

(a) Least Concern
(b) Vulnerable
(c) Critically Endangered
(d) Invasive

Correct Answer – (d) Invasive

  • The IUCN Red List divides species into nine categories:
    • Not Evaluated
    • Data Deficient
    • Least Concern
    • Near Threatened
    • Vulnerable
    • Endangered
    • Critically Endangered
    • Extinct in the Wild
    • Extinct
  • Invasiveness is not a category in the Red List.

3. Which one among the following is not a Critically Endangered bird species of India ?

(a) White-bellied Heron
(b) Great Indian Bustard
(c) House Sparrow
(d) Forest Owlet

Correct Answer – (c) House Sparrow 

  • As per IUCN Red List, White-bellied Heron, Great Indian Bustard and Forest Owlet are categorized as Critically Endangered bird species.
  • House Sparrow categorized as Least Concern.

4. Which one among the following is a Critically Endangered bird species of India ?

(a) Common Myna(Acridotheres tristis)
(b) Rock Dove (Columba livia)
(c) House Sparrow
(d) Bengal Florican

Correct Answer – (d) Bengal Florican

  • The Bengal florican, also called the Bengal bustard, is a bustard species native to the Indian subcontinent.
  • It is listed as Critically Endangered on the IUCN Red List because fewer than 1,000 individuals are estimated to be alive.

5. Consider the following statements about the Vulture species in India :

1. Indian Vulture status is ‘Near Threatened’ in IUCN Red List.
2. Himalayan vulture status is critically endangered.

Select the correct statement(s) using the codes given below.

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer – (d) Neither 1 nor 2

  • Following Vulture species in India are critically endangered:
    • Indian Vulture
    • Red-headed Vulture
    • Slender-billed Vulture
    • White-backed Vulture
  • The IUCN Red List status of Himalayan vulture is ‘Near Threatened’.

6. Which one among the following is a Critically Endangered bird species of India ?

(a) Siberian Crane
(b) Jerdon’s Courser
(c) Himalayan Quail
(d) All of the Above

Correct Answer – (d) All of the Above

  • Siberian Crane, Jerdon’s Courser and Himalayan Quail are Critically Endangered as per the  IUCN Red List.

7. Which one among the following is not a Critically Endangered species of India ?

(a) Pygmy Hog
(b) Kondana Rat
(c) Namdapha Flying Squirrel
(d) Nilgai

Correct Answer – (d) Nilgai

  • Pygmy Hog, Kondana Rat, Namdapha Flying Squirrel are Critically Endangered as per the  IUCN Red List.
  • The Nilgai is the largest antelope of Asia and is commonly found across the northern Indian subcontinent. 
  • The IUCN status of Nilgai is ‘Least Concern’.

8. Consider the following statements about the Nilgiri Tahr :

1. It is endemic to the Nilgiri Hills and the southern portion of the Western Ghats.
2. The IUCN status of Nilgiri Tahr is ‘Least Concern’.

Select the correct statement(s) using the codes given below.

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer – (a) 1 only

  • Nilgiri Tahr, also known as Nilgiri Ibex is endemic to the Nilgiri Hills and the southern portion of the Western Ghats.
  • It is the state animal of Tamil Nadu and locally known as ‘Varaiaadu’.
  • The IUCN status of Nilgiri Tahr is ‘Endangered’.
  • It has been listed under Schedule 1 of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.
  • It is facing threats due to habitat loss, poaching and climate change.

9. Consider the following statements about the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972:

1. It provides for the protection of listed species of animals, birds, and plants.
2. Schedule III of the act covers endangered species that need rigorous protection.

Select the correct statement(s) using the codes given below.

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer – (a) 1 only

  • Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 was enacted to provide protection to various species of animals, birds, and plants and conserve biodiversity.
  • There are six schedules in Wildlife Protection Act:
    • Schedule I → Covers endangered species that need rigorous protection.
    • Schedule II → Animals that cannot be hunted except under threat to human life.
    • Schedule III & IV → Species that are not endangered. 
    • Schedule V → Animals that can be hunted.
    • Schedule VI → plants that are forbidden from cultivation.

10. Which one among the following is not a Critically Endangered species of India ?

(a) Malabar Civet
(b) Kondana Rat
(c) Elvira Rat
(d) Hanuman Langur

Correct Answer – (d)  Hanuman Langur

  • Malabar Civet, Kondana Rat, Elvira Rat are Critically Endangered as per the  IUCN Red List.
  • The IUCN status of Hanuman Langur is ‘Least Concern’.

11. Consider the following statements about the Namdapha Flying Squirrel:

1. It is a rare flying squirrel species found in the Namdapha Tiger Reserve in Arunachal Pradesh.
2. Its IUCN status is ‘Critically Endangered’.

Select the correct statement(s) using the codes given below.

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer – (c) Both 1 and 2

  • Namdapha Flying Squirrel is a rare flying squirrel species found in the Namdapha Tiger Reserve in Arunachal Pradesh.
  • Its IUCN status is ‘Critically Endangered’.
  • It is listed in Schedule I of  Wildlife (Protection) Amendment Act.

12. Consider the following statements about the One-Horned Rhinoceros :

1. Out of all the Rhino species, Only the One-Horned Rhinos are found in India.
2. Its IUCN status is ‘Critically Endangered’.

Select the correct statement(s) using the codes given below.

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer – (a) 1 only

  • Out of all the Rhino species, Only the One-Horned Rhinos are found in India.
  • They are mainly found in Assam, West Bengal and Uttar Pradesh.
  • One-Horned Rhinoceros is listed as ‘Vulnerable’ in the IUCN Red List. 
  • They are listed in Schedule I of Wildlife Protection Act, 1972.

13. Consider the following statements :

1. The IUCN status of Sumatran rhinoceros is ‘Critically Endangered’.
2. The IUCN status of Javan rhinoceros is ‘Endangered’.

Select the correct statement(s) using the codes given below.

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer – (a) 1 only

  • Javan rhinoceros were once widespread in India.
  • They are now extinct in the country.
  • The IUCN status of Javan rhinoceros is ‘Critically Endangered’.
  • The IUCN status of Sumatran rhinoceros is ‘Critically Endangered’.

14. Which one among the following is the largest turtle species in the world ?

(a) Hawksbill Turtle
(b) Leatherback Turtle
(c) Red-crowned Roofed Turtle
(d) None of the Above

Correct Answer – (b) Leatherback Turtle 

  • The leatherback sea turtle is the largest turtle species in the world.
  • It is the only species of sea turtle that lacks the hard shell. 
  • These turtles are highly migratory which can swim over 10,000 miles a year.
  • In India, they are found in Andaman and Nicobar Islands.

15. Consider the following statements about Gharials:

1. They are commonly found in the fresh waters of Chambal river.
2. The IUCN status of Gharials is ‘Critically Endangered’.

Select the correct statement(s) using the codes given below.

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer – (c) Both 1 and 2

  • Gharials are the reptiles distinguished by their long, thin snouts. 
  • They are commonly found in the fresh waters of Chambal river.
  • They are also found in Ghagra, Gandak, the Ramganga and Sone rivers.
  • The IUCN status of Gharials is ‘Critically Endangered’.
  • They are listed on Appendix I of CITES and Schedule I of the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972.

Also Read in Environment and Ecology MCQs :

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