Indian Polity Mock Test

Correct Answer - (a) Government of India Act of 1935

• The Directive Principles mentioned in Part IV of Indian constitution resemble the ‘Instrument of Instructions’ enumerated in the Government of India Act of 1935. 
• Those instructions were issued to the Governor General and Governors of India by the British Government.

Correct Answer - (c) Both 1 & 2

• The Government of India Act was passed by the British Parliament in August 1935 and it came into effect in 1937.
• This act provided for the establishment of a Federal Court which was set up in 1937. 
• This act also provided for the establishment of the Reserve Bank of India.

Correct Answer - (c) Both 1 & 2

• The Government of India Act of 1935 abolished dyarchy in the provinces and introduced ‘provincial autonomy’ in its place. 
• The provinces were allowed to work as autonomous units and administration in their defined spheres. 
• Bicameralism was introduced in six provinces of Bengal, Bombay Madras, Bihar, Assam and the United Provinces.
• It provided for the adoption of dyarchy at the Centre. 
• It divided the powers between the center and divided the subject into three lists:
  • Federal list
  • Provincial list 
  • Concurrent list
• Residuary powers were given to the Viceroy.
• However, this provision of the Act did not come into operation at all.

Correct Answer - (c) Both 1 & 2

• The Government of India Act of 1858 passed in order to provide good governance to the subjects of British India. 
• This act was enacted in the wake of the Revolt of 1857. 
• The act abolished the East India Company and transferred all its powers, territories and revenues to the British Crown.
• The Governor-General/Viceroy were to act as the British representatives in India.
• The act abolished the Court of Directors and the Board of Control. The powers vested in the Court of Directors were transferred to the Secretary of State.

Correct Answer - (d) None of the above

• Indian Council Act of 1909 or the Morley-Minto Reforms is famous for its Provision for legalizing communalism in India. 
• It introduced a system of communal representation for Muslims by accepting the concept of ‘separate electorate’. 
• Under this, the Muslim members were to be elected only by Muslim voters. 
• The Government of India Act of 1919 or The Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms introduced, for the first time, bicameralism and direct elections in the country. 
• Under the Government of India Act of 1919, The system of communal and class electorates was further consolidated and women were also given the right to vote.

Correct Answer - (c) Both 1 & 2

• The main objective of the Government of India Act of 1935 was to create an All-India Federation consisting of provinces and princely states as units.
• However, the federation never came into being as the princely states did not join it. 
• The Government of India Act of 1858 was enacted in the wake of the Revolt of 1857.
• It ended the controversial ‘Doctrine of Lapse’.
• After this act, India became a direct British colony.

Correct Answer - (d) The Indian Councils Act of 1861.

• The Indian Councils Act of 1861 first introduced the Portfolio system in India which made a person head of a particular department of the government.

Correct Answer - (d) None of the above

• The Indian Independence Act of 1947 abolished the office of viceroy.
• Britain was to have no responsibility with respect to the Government of India or Pakistan. 
• This act abolished the office of the Secretary Of State for India and transferred his functions to the Secretary Of State for Commonwealth Affairs( NOT to the Governor General of India ).
•  It ended British rule in India.
•  It provided for the partition of India and creation of two independent dominions of India and Pakistan with the right to secede from the British Commonwealth.
• It discontinued the appointment to civil services and reservation of posts by the Secretary Of State for India.

Correct Answer - (c) Both 1 and 2

• The Constituent Assembly of India was a body that drafted the Constitution of India.
•  It was established on December 6, 1946.
• The Constituent Assembly appointed a number of committees to deal with different tasks of constitution-making. 
• The Union Powers Committee was headed by Jawaharlal Nehru.
• The Union Constitution Committee was also headed by Jawaharlal Nehru.
• The Steering Committee was headed by Dr. Rajendra Prasad.

Correct Answer - (b) 2 only

• The Provincial Constitution Committee was headed by Sardar Patel 
• The Drafting Committee was headed by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar 

Other Important Committees:

• Advisory Committee on Fundamental Rights, Minorities and Tribal and Excluded Areas Was headed by Sardar Patel. 
• This committee had the following sub-committees: 
  • Fundamental Rights Sub-Committee headed by J.B. Kripalani 
  • Minorities Sub-Committee headed by H.C. Mukherjee 
  • North-East Frontier Tribal Areas and Assam Excluded & Partially Excluded Areas SubCommittee was headed by Gopinath Bardoloi 
  • Excluded and Partially Excluded Areas (Other than those in Assam) Sub-Committee headed by A.V. Thakkar 
  • The Rules of Procedure Committee was headed by Dr. Rajendra Prasad 
  • The States Committee (Committee for Negotiating with States) was headed by Jawaharlal Nehru.

Correct Answer - (c) 2 and 3 only

•  The time immediately following the Question Hour has come to be known as "Zero Hour". 
• The time gap between the question hour and the agenda of the day is known as zero hour. 
• It is an Indian innovation in the field of parliamentary procedures and has been in existence since 1962. 
• Thus can be considered as an informal device available to the members of the Parliament to raise matters without any prior notice.

Correct Answer - (a) 1, 2 and 3 only

• Factors that contributed to the large size of our Constitution of India:
  • Diversity and Vastness of the country
  • Single constitution for both the center and states
  • Influence of the Government of India Act of 1935
  • Lack of legal luminaries in the Constituent Assembly
  • Constitution being based on a number of sources

Correct Answer - (b) 1 and 2 only

• Features of the Parliamentary form of Government in India:
  • Majority party rule
  • Collective Responsibility of the executive to the legislature
  • Bicameral legislature
  • Dissolution of the lower house(NOT upper house).

Correct Answer - (a) 1 only

• The Indian Constitution framers adopted various features from several sources of the world.
• Directive Principles of State Policy is borrowed from the Irish Constitution.
• The method of the election of the President is also borrowed from the Irish Constitution.

Correct Answer - (c) Both 1 and 2

• Suspension of Fundamental Rights during Emergency has been borrowed from the Weimar Constitution of Germany.
• Concurrent List has been borrowed from the Australian Constitution.
• Other Provisions borrowed from the Australian Constitution:
  • Freedom of trade, commerce and intercourse
  • Joint sitting of both the Houses of Parliament.

Correct Answer - (a) 1 only

• Parliamentary form of government has been borrowed from the British Constitution.
• Rule of Law has also been borrowed from the British Constitution.
• Other Provisions borrowed from the British Constitution:
  • Legislative procedure
  • Single citizenship
  • Cabinet System
  • Prerogative Writs

• Provisions borrowed from the US Constitution:
  • Fundamental Rights
  • Independence of Judiciary
  • Impeachment of the President
  • Post of Vice-President. 
  • Judicial Review
  • Removal of Supreme Court and High Court judges

Correct Answer - (d) None of the above

• The 'Preamble' of the Constitution of India indicates that the source from which the document derives its authority is the people of India.
• The ideals of liberty, equality and fraternity in the Preamble have been borrowed from the French Constitution.

Correct Answer - (a) 1 only

• Preamble is an introductory statement that explains the Constitution’s philosophy and objectives.
• The ideals of the Preamble to India’s Constitution were laid down by Jawaharlal Nehru in his Objectives Resolution adopted by the Constituent Assembly on January 22, 1947.
• It mentioned that the source of authority of the Constitution lies with the people of India.
• It declares India to be a sovereign, socialist, secular and democratic republic.
• Its objectives are to secure justice, liberty, equality to all citizens and promote fraternity to maintain unity and integrity of the nation.
• It was adopted on 26 November 1949 by the Constituent Assembly and came into effect on 26th January, 1950.

Correct Answer - (a) 1 only

• The Preamble has been amended only once so far, in 1976, by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act.
• It added three new words to the Preamble - Socialist, Secular and Integrity.
• The Supreme Court in Kesavanand Bharati case has held that:
  • The Preamble is a part of the Constitution.
  • It can be amended under Article 368 of the Constitution, but the basic structure of the preamble can not be changed.

Correct Answer - (a) 1 only

• The cessation of Indian territories to a foreign nation requires a Constitutional Amendment Act. 
• The Parliament is empowered by the Constitution to form new states or alter the areas of existing state, or change the name of existing state without amending the Constitution under article 368.
• The Supreme Court has ruled that settlement of a boundary dispute between India and another country does not require a constitutional amendment. It can be done by executive action as it does not involve cession of Indian territory to a foreign country.

Correct Answer - (a) 1 only

• A state reorganization bill needs the prior recommendation of the President.
• It is mandatory for the President to refer the bill to the concerned legislature of the state; however the President is not bound by the views of the state legislature and may either accept or reject them.
• In case of a union territory, no Presidential reference need be made to the concerned legislature.

Correct Answer - (b) 2 only

• In India both a citizen by birth as well as a naturalized citizen are eligible for the office of President.
• Citizens of the other nations in India are classified into two categories of 
  • Friendly aliens → Subjects of those countries that have cordial relations with India. 
  • Enemy aliens → Subjects of those countries that are at war with India.
• It is to be noted that the enemy aliens are not entitled to civil or political rights and also they do not have protection from arrest and detention.

Correct Answer - (b) 2 only

• The Constitution of India deals with the matters of citizenship from Articles 5 to 11 under Part II, however it does not deal with the problem of acquisition or loss of citizenship.
• It only identifies the persons who became citizens of India at the time of commencement of the constitution  on January 26, 1950. 
• It empowers the Parliament to enact a law to provide for such matters and any other matter relating to citizenship. 
• Accordingly, Parliament has enacted the Citizenship Act, 1955, which has been amended in 1986, 1992, 2003, 2005 and 2019. 
• The latest Citizenship Amendment Act, 2019  provides citizenship on the basis of religion to six undocumented non-Muslim communities (Hindus, Sikhs, Buddhists, Jains, Parsis and Christians) from Pakistan, Afghanistan and Bangladesh who entered India on or before 31st December, 2014.

Correct Answer - (d) All of the above

• According to Indian Citizenship Act, There are four ways in which Indian citizenship can be acquired:
  • By Birth
  • By Descent
  • By Registration
  • By Naturalization

Correct Answer - (a) 1 only

• The Fundamental Rights are enshrined in Part III of the Constitution from Article 12 to 35.
• The Constitution of India provides for six Fundamental Rights:
  • Right to equality (Articles 14–18)
  • Right to freedom (Articles 19–22)
  • Right against exploitation (Articles 23–24)
  • Right to freedom of religion (Articles 25–28)
  • Cultural and educational rights (Articles 29–30)
  • Right to constitutional remedies (Article 32)
• Fundamental Rights are not absolute but qualified as states can impose reasonable restrictions on them.
• It is to be noted that all fundamental Rights are not suspended during the operation of National emergency. 
• The fundamental Rights  guaranteed by Articles 20 and 21 can not be suspended even during the operation of a National Emergency.

Correct Answer - (b) Part III of the Indian Constitution

• Originally, ‘Magna Carta’, was the Charter of Rights issued by King John of England in 1215.
• It was the first written document related to the Fundamental Rights of the citizens.
• Part III of the Indian Constitution is also described as the Magna Carta of India as it provides six fundamental rights to the citizens.

Correct Answer - (a) 1 only

• Originally the constitution also included Right to property as a fundamental right.
• It was deleted from the list of Fundamental Rights by the 44th Amendment Act, 1978.
• It has been made a legal right under Article 300-A in Part XII of the Constitution.

Correct Answer - (d) None of the above

• Most of the Fundamental Rights are available against the arbitrary action of the State, with a few exceptions like those against the State’s action and also against the action of private individuals.
• Fundamental Rights mentioned under Article 17(Abolition of Untouchability) is available against private individuals and it is the constitutional obligation of the state to take necessary action to ensure that this right is not violated.
• Fundamental Rights mentioned under Article 23(Prohibition of Traffic in Human Beings) is available not only against the State but also against private individuals.
• When the rights that are available against the State’s action only are violated by the private individuals, there are no constitutional remedies but only ordinary legal remedies.

Correct Answer - (c) 1 and 3 only

• The ‘Rule of Law’ Theory was first propounded by the British jurist A.V. Dicey. 
• As per his theory, there are following features of  ‘Rule of Law’: 
  • Absence of arbitrary power, that is, no man can be punished except for a breach of law. 
  • The constitution is the result of the rights of the individual as defined and enforced by the courts of law rather than the constitution itself being the source of the individual rights.
  • Equality before the law, that is, equal subjection of all citizens (rich or poor, high or low, official or non-official) to the ordinary law of the land.
• It must be noted here that only the first and the third feature of this theory are applicable to the Indian System.
• In the Indian System, the constitution is the source of the individual rights.

Correct Answer - (a) 1 only

• Article 19(1) provides all citizens following six rights:
  • Freedom of speech and expression
  • To assemble peaceably and without arms
  • To form associations or unions
  • To move freely throughout the territory of India
  • To reside and settle in any part of the territory of India
  • To practice any profession, or to carry on any occupation, trade or business. 
• These six rights are protected against only state action and not private individuals. 
• Right to shops, public restaurants, hotels and places of public entertainment without any restriction only on the basis of religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth has been provided by the constitution under article 15(2). This provision prohibits discrimination both by the State and private individuals.

Correct Answer - (a) 1 only

• The Constitution provides the Fundamental Rights under article 17 which protects individuals against untouchability. 
• However, the term ‘untouchability’ has not been defined in the Constitution.

Correct Answer - (c) Both 1 and 2

• Article 32 makes the Supreme Court the defender and guarantor of the fundamental rights. 
• Article 32 provides the right to Constitutional remedies. 
• If a person feels that his/her fundamental rights are abridged by authorities or the State, he/she can approach the Supreme Court for getting the fundamental rights protected. 
•  This Right can be suspended during a national emergency.

Correct Answer - (d) None of the above

• Both the Supreme Court and High Courts have the power to issue writs for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights.
• The Supreme Court has power to issue writs under article 32.
• High Courts have been given the same powers under article 226.
• In case of the enforcement of Fundamental Rights, the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court is original but not exclusive as It is concurrent with the jurisdiction of the high court under Article 226.

Correct Answer - (b) 2 only

• Article 33 of the constitution empowers the Parliament to restrict or abrogate the fundamental rights of the members of armed forces, paramilitary forces, police forces, intelligence agencies and analogous forces. 
• The objective of this provision is to ensure the proper discharge of their duties and the maintenance of discipline among them. 
• It must be noted that the power to make such laws under Article 33 is conferred only on Parliament and not on state legislatures.
• Article 34 provides for the restrictions on fundamental rights while martial law is in force in any area within the territory of India.

Correct Answer - (a) 1 only

• The Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSPs) are a set of guidelines provided in part IV of the Indian Constitution that outline the ideals that the government should consider when making laws and policies.
• On the basis of their content and direction, they have been classified into three broad categories:
  • Socialistic
  • Gandhian
  • Liberal–intellectual
• DPSPs based on Gandhian ideology:
  • To organize village panchayats and endow them with necessary powers and authority to enable them to function as units of self government (Article 40).
  • To promote cottage industries on an individual or co-operation basis in rural areas (Article 43).
  • To promote voluntary formation, autonomous functioning, democratic control and professional management of cooperative societies
  • To promote the educational and economic interests of SCs, STs, and other weaker sections of the society and to protect them from social injustice and exploitation (Article 46). 
  • To prohibit the consumption of intoxicating drinks and drugs which are injurious to health (Article 47).
  • To prohibit the slaughter of cows, calves and other milch and draught cattle and to improve their breeds (Article 48). 

Correct Answer - (b) 1 and 3 only

• Fundamental duties are a set of responsibilities that all citizens of India are expected to fulfill.
• The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 added 10 Fundamental Duties to the Indian Constitution.
• They are mentioned in Article 51A under Part-IV A of the Indian Constitution.
• The Fundamental Duties are meant for Indian citizens only and not for the aliens. 
• The Fundamental Duties in the Indian Constitution are inspired by the Constitution of erstwhile USSR. 
• They are nonjusticiable.

Correct Answer - (c) All of the Above

• Those provisions of the Constitution which are related to the federal structure of the polity can be amended by a special majority of the Parliament and also require the consent of half of the state legislatures by a simple majority.
• The following provisions can be amended in this way: 
  • Election of the President and its manner.
  • Extent of the executive power of the Union and the states.
  • Supreme Court and high courts.
  • Distribution of legislative powers between the Union and the states.
  • Any of the lists in the Seventh Schedule. 
  • Representation of states in Parliament. 
  • Power of Parliament to amend the Constitution and its procedure (Article 368 itself).

Correct Answer - (a) 1 only

•  The Article 263 of the Constitution empowers the President who can establish an Inter-State Council to investigate and discuss subjects of common interest between the Centre and the states. 
• It is a non-permanent body. The President can establish such a council if at any time it appears to him that the public interest would be served by its establishment.

Correct Answer - (c) Both 1 and 2

• The 38th Amendment Act of 1975 made the satisfaction of the President in invoking Article 356 final and conclusive which could not be challenged in any court on any ground. 
• But, this provision was subsequently deleted by the 44th Amendment Act of 1978 implying that the satisfaction of the President is not beyond judicial review.
• In the Bommai case of 1994, the Supreme Court declared that the presidential proclamation imposing President’s rule is subject to judicial review.
• Hence if proclamation is found to be unconstitutional, The court can restore the dissolved state legislative assembly.

Correct Answer - (b) 2 only

• Article 360 empowers the President to proclaim a Financial Emergency if he is satisfied that a situation has arisen due to which the financial stability or credit of India or any part of its territory is threatened. 
• The President may issue directions for the reduction of salaries and allowances of following:
  • All or any class of persons serving the Union
  • The judges of the Supreme Court
  • The judges of the High court.
• There is no maximum period prescribed for the operation of a Financial Emergency.
• A proclamation of Financial Emergency can be revoked by the President at any time by a subsequent proclamation.
• Such a proclamation does not require the approval of the Parliament.

Correct Answer - (a) 1 only

•  The President can be removed from office by a process of impeachment for ‘Violation of the Constitution’. 
• The impeachment charges can be initiated by either House of Parliament.
• These charges should be signed by at least one-fourth members of the House , and a 14 days’ notice should be given to the President. 
• After the impeachment resolution is passed by a majority of two-thirds of the total membership of that House, it is sent to the other House, which should investigate the charges. 
• The President has the right to appear and to be represented at such an investigation. 
• If the other House also sustains the charges and passes the impeachment resolution by a majority of two-thirds of the total membership, then the President stands removed from his office from the date on which the bill is passed.

Correct Answer - (c) Both 1 and 2

• Vice-President of India also  acts as the ex-officio Chairman of Rajya Sabha.
• While acting as President or discharging the functions of President, he does not perform the duties of Rajya Sabha.

Correct Answer - (d) Neither 1 nor 2

• Article 352 defines the term ‘Cabinet’ as the council consisting of the Prime Minister and other ministers of the Cabinet rank.
• The total number of ministers, including the Prime Minister, in the Council of Ministers shall not exceed 15% of the total strength of the Lok Sabha. 
• This provision was added by the 91st Amendment Act of 2003.

Correct Answer - (c) Both 1 and 2

• The Constitution clearly mentions that ‘No money shall be withdrawn from the Consolidated Fund of India except under appropriation made by law’.
• The budget consists of two types of expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of India: 
  • The expenditure ‘Charged’ upon the Consolidated Fund of India.
  • The expenditure ‘Made’ from the Consolidated Fund of India.
• The Charged Expenditure is non-votable by the Parliament. It can only be discussed by the Parliament.

Correct Answer - (c) All of the above

• The Speaker of the Lok Sabha derives his powers and duties from three sources:
  • The Constitution of India 
  • The Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business of Lok Sabha
  • Parliamentary Conventions (residuary powers that are unwritten or unspecified in the Rules).

Correct Answer - (c) All of the above

• All the statements are correct as they ensure the independence of the judiciary.

Correct Answer - (a) 61st Amendment Act

• The 61st Amendment Act, 1988 was enacted to reduce the voting age from 21 years to 18 years.
• Article 326 of the Constitution provides that the elections to the House of the People and to the Legislative Assembly of every State shall be on the basis of adult suffrage.

Correct Answer - (c) Both 1 and 2

• The President can summon or prorogue the Parliament and dissolve the Lok Sabha. 
• He can also summon a joint sitting of both the Houses of Parliament, which is presided over by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
• He can address the Parliament at the commencement of the first session after each general election and the first session of each year.
• The Presiding Officer of the concerned House(Speaker of Lok Sabha and Chairman of Rajya Sabha) adjourns and adjourns sine die.

Correct Answer - (a) 1 only

• The maximum strength of Rajya Sabha is fixed at 250.
• All members of Rajya Sabha are not elected. Out of 250, 238 are to be the representatives of the states and union territories elected indirectly and 12 are nominated by the President.
• Out of the Seven Union Territories, only Delhi and Pondicherry have representation in the Rajya Sabha.
• 12 members are nominated by the President in Rajya Sabha for their contribution and expertise in the fields of Art, Literature, Science and Social Service.
• Rajya Sabha is a permanent body and also called a ‘continuing chamber’ as it never gets dissolved. Every second year, one-third of its members retire. 

Correct Answer - (a) Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha

• The feature of joint sitting is an extraordinary machinery provided by the Constitution to resolve a deadlock between the two Houses over the passage of a bill.
• The Speaker presides over a joint sitting. 
• In the absence of the Speaker, the Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha presides and in his absence, the sitting is presided over by the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.